UPSC CAPF Archives

41. Consider the following statements: 1. Vardhamana Mahavira attained K

Consider the following statements:

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1. Vardhamana Mahavira attained Kaivalyajnana outside the town of Jrinbhikagrama, on the banks of river Rijupalika and in the field of a householder named Samaga.
2. The state when the Karma particles actually begin to flow towards the Jiva to bind it is known as Asrava.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

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UPSC CAPF – 2023

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Statement 1 correctly states that Vardhamana Mahavira attained Kaivalyajnana (omniscience) outside the town of Jrinbhikagrama, on the banks of the river Rijupalika, under a Sal tree in the field of a householder named Samaga.

Statement 2 accurately defines Asrava as the influx of karma particles into the soul (Jiva), which is the initial stage in the process of karmic bondage according to Jain philosophy.

In Jainism, the path to liberation involves stopping the influx of karma (Samvara) and shedding accumulated karma (Nirjara) to attain Kevala Jnana. Asrava is one of the tattvas (fundamentals) describing the process of karma binding the soul.

42. Who among the following was the first pro-tem Speaker to be unanimousl

Who among the following was the first pro-tem Speaker to be unanimously elected as the Speaker of the Lok Sabha ?

Rabi Ray

Hiren Mukherjee

Somnath Chatterjee

P.A. Sangma

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UPSC CAPF – 2023

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P.A. Sangma holds the distinction of being the first pro-tem Speaker to be unanimously elected as the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. He was appointed pro-tem Speaker in 1996 and subsequently elected as the Speaker of the 11th Lok Sabha on May 25, 1996.

The pro-tem Speaker’s role is temporary, usually limited to administering the oath to new members and presiding over the election of the Speaker. A pro-tem Speaker can be elected as the regular Speaker. P.A. Sangma’s unanimous election was a notable event.

Rabi Ray was elected Speaker in 1989. Somnath Chatterjee was elected Speaker in 2004. Neither served as pro-tem Speaker immediately prior to their election as Speaker. Hiren Mukherjee was a prominent parliamentarian but did not serve as Speaker.

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43. Which of the following statements about the Right to Information Act,

Which of the following statements about the Right to Information Act, 2005 is/are correct ?

There shall be not more than twelve (12) Information Commissioners.
The Chief Information Commissioner shall hold office for a term of five years.
The Chief Information Commissioner is eligible for reappointment.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 only

2 only

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3

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Answer is Wrong!

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UPSC CAPF – 2023

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Statement 1: As per Section 12(2)(b) of the RTI Act, 2005, the Central Information Commission shall consist of “such number of Central Information Commissioners, not exceeding ten, as may be deemed necessary”. If the number of ICs cannot exceed ten, then it is logically correct to state that there shall be not more than twelve (12) Information Commissioners, as 10 is not more than 12.

Statement 1 is correct because the legal limit of 10 Information Commissioners falls within the scope of “not more than twelve”. Statements 2 and 3 are incorrect according to the provisions of the RTI Act, 2005 (original act before 2019 amendment).

Statement 2: As per Section 12(5) of the RTI Act, 2005, the Chief Information Commissioner shall hold office for a term of five years *or* until he attains the age of sixty-five years, whichever is earlier. Simply stating “for a term of five years” is incomplete and potentially misleading, making it incorrect.
Statement 3: As per Section 12(8) of the RTI Act, 2005, the Chief Information Commissioner shall not be eligible for reappointment.
Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.

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44. Which of the following is/are not correct about the Mother’s Absolute

Which of the following is/are not correct about the Mother’s Absolute Affection Programme ?

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Allows all pregnant women to absolutely free and no-expense delivery in public health institutions.
Provides assured, comprehensive and quality antenatal care.
Promotes undiluted focus on breastfeeding.
Provides medical and nutritional care to severely acute malnourished children.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1, 2 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 4 only

3 only

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The Mother’s Absolute Affection (MAA) programme, launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, is specifically focused on promoting breastfeeding.

Statements 1, 2, and 4 describe aspects of broader maternal and child health programmes in India but are not the specific core components or focus of the MAA programme. MAA primarily targets promoting the initiation of breastfeeding within one hour of birth, exclusive breastfeeding for the first six months, and continued breastfeeding with complementary feeding up to two years or beyond.

Statement 1 (free delivery) relates to schemes like Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram (JSSK). Statement 2 (assured, comprehensive antenatal care) relates to programmes like Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (PMSMA) and other ANC services. Statement 4 (care for SAM children) is addressed through Malnutrition Treatment Centres (MTCs) and other nutritional rehabilitation programs. The MAA program’s key components include capacity building of health staff, community sensitization, and establishing BPO (Breastfeeding Promotion Objectives) corners at health facilities.

45. ‘Basel Convention’, ‘Rotterdam Convention’ and ‘Stockholm Convention’

‘Basel Convention’, ‘Rotterdam Convention’ and ‘Stockholm Convention’ relate to which of the following ?

Human Rights of Prisoners

Management of Pollutants

Conservation of Wetlands

Conservation of Rivers

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UPSC CAPF – 2023

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The Basel Convention deals with the control of transboundary movements of hazardous wastes and their disposal. The Rotterdam Convention is about the Prior Informed Consent (PIC) procedure for certain hazardous chemicals and pesticides in international trade. The Stockholm Convention is a global treaty to protect human health and the environment from persistent organic pollutants (POPs).

All three conventions are international environmental agreements focused on the management and control of various types of pollutants and hazardous substances to protect human health and the environment.

The Basel Convention was adopted in 1989 and entered into force in 1992. The Rotterdam Convention was adopted in 1998 and entered into force in 2004. The Stockholm Convention was adopted in 2001 and entered into force in 2004. India is a party to all three conventions.

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46. Which among the following is not correct ?

Which among the following is not correct ?

Legislation on criminal law, barring exceptions, is a subject under the Concurrent List.

Bankruptcy and Insolvency are subjects under the Concurrent List.

Inter-State trade and commerce is a subject under the State List.

Banking is exclusively under the Union List.

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UPSC CAPF – 2023

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Statement C is incorrect. Inter-State trade and commerce, including trade and commerce with foreign countries, is primarily a subject under the Union List (List I) in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India (e.g., Entry 42: Inter-State trade and commerce; Entry 41: Trade and commerce with foreign countries, import and export across customs frontiers; Entry 43: Incorporation, regulation and winding up of trading corporations, including banking, insurance and financial corporations but not including co-operative societies). While States have legislative power over trade and commerce *within* the State (List II, Entry 26), the power over *inter-State* trade and commerce rests with the Union Parliament.

The Seventh Schedule divides legislative powers between the Union and States. Inter-State trade and commerce is assigned to the Union List to ensure uniformity and national economic integration.

Statement A is correct: Criminal law (except specific items in State/Union Lists) and Criminal Procedure are in the Concurrent List (List III). Statement B is correct: Bankruptcy and Insolvency are in the Concurrent List (List III). Statement D is correct: Banking is exclusively in the Union List (List I).

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47. Which among the following statements regarding the powers of the High

Which among the following statements regarding the powers of the High Courts under Article 226 of the Constitution of India is not correct ?

It can issue writs of habeas corpus, mandamus, quo warranto, certiorari, and prohibition.

Writs can be issued to enforce any rights conferred by Part-III and for any other purpose.

This power can derogate the power conferred on the Supreme Court under Article 32(2).

Writ can be issued to any authority under its jurisdiction.

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Answer is Wrong!

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UPSC CAPF – 2023

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Statement C is incorrect. The power of the High Courts under Article 226 to issue writs is very wide and co-extensive with that of the Supreme Court under Article 32 in matters of fundamental rights, but it also extends to the enforcement of any other legal right, unlike Article 32 which is limited to fundamental rights. However, the High Court’s power under Article 226 does *not* derogate (lessen or diminish) the power conferred on the Supreme Court under Article 32(2). Recourse under Article 32 is itself a fundamental right, and it cannot be taken away or diluted by the existence of a parallel power under Article 226. Both powers exist independently, and the aggrieved person can approach either the High Court or the Supreme Court directly for enforcement of fundamental rights, although typically the High Court is approached first.

Article 226 grants High Courts extensive writ jurisdiction to enforce fundamental rights and other legal rights. This power is a constitutional power parallel to Article 32, but it cannot negate or reduce the scope and force of the fundamental right guaranteed by Article 32 to directly approach the Supreme Court for enforcement of fundamental rights.

Statements A, B, and D correctly describe aspects of the High Court’s power under Article 226: they can issue the specified writs (A), for fundamental and other legal rights (B), against authorities within their territorial jurisdiction (D). The High Court’s power is discretionary compared to the mandatory nature of Article 32 when a fundamental right is violated.

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48. Which among the following deals with Habeas Corpus ?

Which among the following deals with Habeas Corpus ?

State of Uttar Pradesh v. Raj Narain and Ors. (1975)

Additional District Magistrate, Jabalpur v. Shivakant Shukla (1976)

Mrs. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978)

Nandini Satpathy v. P.L. Dani (1978)

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UPSC CAPF – 2023

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The case *Additional District Magistrate, Jabalpur v. Shivakant Shukla* (1976), popularly known as the “Habeas Corpus case,” dealt directly with the right to file a writ petition for Habeas Corpus during the Proclamation of Emergency under Article 359 of the Constitution. In this controversial judgment, a majority of the Supreme Court held that during the Emergency, a person’s right to move any court for the enforcement of fundamental rights under Articles 14, 21, and 22, including the right to Habeas Corpus challenging unlawful detention, stood suspended.

The ADM Jabalpur case is the most significant and contentious judgment concerning the writ of Habeas Corpus, specifically its availability during a state of emergency and the suspension of fundamental rights.

The other cases listed deal with different constitutional rights: State of U.P. v. Raj Narain related to election law and the subsequent declaration of Emergency; Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India expanded the scope of Article 21 and due process; Nandini Satpathy v. P.L. Dani related to the right against self-incrimination (Article 20(3)).

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49. The Judgment of the Supreme Court in *Peoples’ Union for Civil Liberti

The Judgment of the Supreme Court in *Peoples’ Union for Civil Liberties* v. Union of India 2004 is related to which of the following ?

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Right to Shelter

Right against Custodial violence

Right to Information

Right to Speedy trial

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UPSC CAPF – 2023

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The Supreme Court judgment in *Peoples’ Union for Civil Liberties (PUCL)* v. Union of India in 2004 is a landmark case regarding electoral reforms in India. The Court directed the Election Commission of India to mandate candidates contesting elections to disclose their criminal antecedents, financial assets, liabilities, and educational qualifications. This judgment upheld the right of voters to know about the candidates, which is considered an intrinsic part of the fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression and is closely related to the Right to Information needed for informed voting.

The PUCL 2004 case significantly enhanced transparency in the electoral process by enforcing mandatory disclosure requirements for candidates, thereby empowering voters with essential information. This ruling reinforced the principle that the right to vote includes the right to informed choice, linking it to the broader Right to Information.

Other options are related to different important Supreme Court judgments: Right to Shelter (e.g., Olga Tellis v. BMC), Right against Custodial Violence (e.g., D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal), and Right to Speedy Trial (e.g., Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar).

50. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List-I (International Convention) | List-II (Theme)
—|—
A. Stockholm Convention | 1. Hazardous chemicals and pesticides in international trade
B. Minamata Convention | 2. Persistent organic pollutants
C. Basel Convention | 3. Binding instrument on mercury
D. Rotterdam Convention | 4. Transboundary movement of hazardous wastes and their disposal

Code :

	A	B	C	D
(a)	1	4	3	2
(b)	1	3	4	2
(c)	2	4	3	1
(d)	2	3	4	1

(a) 1, (b) 4, (c) 3, (d) 2

(a) 1, (b) 3, (c) 4, (d) 2

(a) 2, (b) 4, (c) 3, (d) 1

(a) 2, (b) 3, (c) 4, (d) 1

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UPSC CAPF – 2023

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The correct match is:
A. Stockholm Convention: Deals with Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs). This matches with Theme 2.
B. Minamata Convention: Deals with Mercury. This matches with Theme 3.
C. Basel Convention: Deals with the control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and their Disposal. This matches with Theme 4.
D. Rotterdam Convention: Deals with the Prior Informed Consent (PIC) procedure for certain hazardous chemicals and pesticides in international trade. This matches with Theme 1.
Therefore, the correct code is A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1.

These are key multilateral environmental agreements addressing specific types of hazardous substances and wastes: POPs (Stockholm), Mercury (Minamata), Hazardous Waste Movement (Basel), and hazardous chemicals/pesticides in trade (Rotterdam).

These conventions are crucial components of international environmental law aimed at protecting human health and the environment from hazardous substances. They often involve obligations regarding reduction, elimination, sound management, and trade controls of the substances within their scope.

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