UPSC CAPF Archives

1. 3G and 4G are wireless technologies, which are supposedly faster, more

3G and 4G are wireless technologies, which are supposedly faster, more secure and reliable. Present day 3G technology is capable of handling data around 2 Megabits per second (1.8 – 2.5 GHz frequency band). What speed is expected from new 4G technology ?

10-30 Megabits per second (1-5 GHz frequency band)

10-100 Megabits per second (2-10 GHz frequency band)

100 Megabits—1 Gigabit per second (2-8 GHz frequency band)

More than 10 Gigabits per second (10-20 GHz frequency band)

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Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2014

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The correct answer is 100 Megabits—1 Gigabit per second (2-8 GHz frequency band).

The question asks about the expected speed from new 4G technology compared to 3G (around 2 Mbps). 4G, specifically LTE (Long-Term Evolution), was designed to provide significantly higher data rates. While real-world speeds vary greatly depending on network conditions and load, the theoretical peak speeds and design targets for 4G are much higher than 3G.
LTE (4G) typically aims for peak downlink speeds of 100 Mbps for high-mobility users and up to 1 Gbps for low-mobility users (in advanced versions like LTE-Advanced). Peak uplink speeds are lower, typically up to 50 Mbps.
Comparing the options:
A) 10-30 Mbps: Only slightly better than 3G, too low for 4G targets.
B) 10-100 Mbps: Covers the lower end of 4G peak downlink but doesn’t capture the higher potential.
C) 100 Megabits—1 Gigabit per second: This range accurately reflects the peak theoretical speeds achievable by 4G and LTE-Advanced technologies, particularly the upper bound in ideal conditions.
D) More than 10 Gigabits per second: This speed range is characteristic of 5G technology, not 4G.
The frequency band mentioned (2-8 GHz) is also plausible for 4G deployments, although 4G uses various bands depending on the region and spectrum availability.

4G represents a significant leap in mobile communication speeds compared to 3G, enabling services like HD video streaming and faster internet access. While 1 Gbps was an ambitious target often associated with theoretical peaks or LTE-Advanced Pro, the range of 100 Mbps to 1 Gbps captures the intended performance increase over 3G.

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2. Consider the following pie graph depicting budget of a family : [Pie g

Consider the following pie graph depicting budget of a family :
[Pie graph image showing sectors A(25%), B(12%), C(18%), D(10%), E(20%), F(15%) labelled with A Food, B Conveyance, C Clothing, D Miscellaneous, E Saving, F House Rent]
How many degrees difference be there in the central angle of the sector for saving and miscellaneous expenses ?

33°

36°

46°

60°

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Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2014

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The correct answer is 36°.

In a pie chart, the total circle represents 360°. Each sector’s angle is proportional to the percentage it represents of the total.
The percentage for Saving (E) is 20%.
The percentage for Miscellaneous (D) is 10%.
The difference in percentage between Saving and Miscellaneous expenses is 20% – 10% = 10%.

To convert this percentage difference to a difference in central angle (degrees):
Angle difference = (Percentage difference / 100) * 360°
Angle difference = (10 / 100) * 360°
Angle difference = 0.10 * 360°
Angle difference = 36°.

Alternatively, you could calculate the individual angles:
Angle for Saving = (20/100) * 360° = 0.20 * 360° = 72°.
Angle for Miscellaneous = (10/100) * 360° = 0.10 * 360° = 36°.
Difference = 72° – 36° = 36°.

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3. With reference to the various multipurpose projects in India, which on

With reference to the various multipurpose projects in India, which one among the following statements is not correct ?

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Machkund project is a joint venture of Andhra Pradesh and Odisha

Parambikulam Aliyar project is a joint venture of Kerala and Tamil Nadu

Mayurakshi project is a joint venture of Odisha and West Bengal

Chambal Valley project is a joint venture of Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan

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Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2014

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The correct answer is Mayurakshi project is a joint venture of Odisha and West Bengal.

Let’s examine each statement:
A) Machkund project: This is a hydroelectric project on the Machkund River, a tributary of the Godavari. It is a joint venture between Andhra Pradesh and Odisha (formerly Orissa). This statement is correct.
B) Parambikulam Aliyar project: This is a complex multipurpose project involving inter-basin transfer of water from rivers in the Parambikulam and Aliyar basins (in Kerala and Tamil Nadu respectively) to serve irrigation and power needs in Tamil Nadu. It is a joint venture between Kerala and Tamil Nadu. This statement is correct.
C) Mayurakshi project: This project is based on the Mayurakshi River, which flows through Jharkhand and West Bengal. The Massanjore Dam (also known as Canada Dam) on this river is located in Jharkhand, but built for the benefit of West Bengal. The benefits of the project primarily accrue to West Bengal (irrigation and power). Odisha is not a beneficiary or partner in this project. This statement is incorrect.
D) Chambal Valley project: This is a series of dams on the Chambal River. Key dams include Gandhi Sagar Dam (Madhya Pradesh), Rana Pratap Sagar Dam, Jawahar Sagar Dam, and Kota Barrage (all in Rajasthan). It is a joint venture benefiting Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan. This statement is correct.

The Mayurakshi project primarily involves West Bengal and benefits from the Massanjore dam located in Jharkhand.

4. Which of the following statements about the detailed corporate governa

Which of the following statements about the detailed corporate governance norms for listed companies issued in April 2014 by SEBI is/are correct ?

1. It provides for stricter disclosures and protection of investor rights, including equitable treatment for minority and foreign shareholders.
2. Under the new norms listed companies are required to provide the facility of e-voting to shareholders on all resolutions to be passed at general meetings.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

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1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

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Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2014

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The correct answer is Both 1 and 2.

SEBI indeed introduced detailed corporate governance norms in April 2014.
Statement 1: These norms significantly strengthened corporate governance requirements for listed companies, focusing on stricter disclosures, board composition (increasing independent directors), and protecting the rights of all shareholders, including minority and foreign shareholders, ensuring their equitable treatment. This statement is correct.
Statement 2: The SEBI circular CIR/CFD/POLICY CELL/2/2014 dated April 17, 2014, mandated all listed entities to provide their shareholders with the facility of e-voting to enable them to cast their votes electronically on all resolutions proposed at general meetings. While initially mandatory for larger companies for certain resolutions via postal ballot/e-voting, the circular mandated the *facility* for *all* listed entities for *all* resolutions at general meetings. This statement is also correct in reflecting the key change introduced.

These reforms were based on recommendations and aimed at improving transparency, accountability, and shareholder participation in corporate decision-making, aligning Indian regulations closer to international best practices.

5. How many squares are there in the figure given below ?

How many squares are there in the figure given below ?

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Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2014

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The correct answer is 30.

The figure provided is a standard 4×4 grid of squares. To find the total number of squares in an N x N grid, we count the number of squares of each possible size (1×1, 2×2, 3×3, …, NxN) and sum them up.
For a 4×4 grid (N=4):
– Number of 1×1 squares = 4 * 4 = 16
– Number of 2×2 squares = 3 * 3 = 9
– Number of 3×3 squares = 2 * 2 = 4
– Number of 4×4 squares = 1 * 1 = 1
Total number of squares = 16 + 9 + 4 + 1 = 30.

The general formula for the total number of squares in an N x N grid is the sum of squares from 1 to N: 1² + 2² + 3² + … + N². For N=4, the sum is 1² + 2² + 3² + 4² = 1 + 4 + 9 + 16 = 30.

6. Methane is a very potent green house gas. It is converted to carbon di

Methane is a very potent green house gas. It is converted to carbon dioxide to ease its overall effect on global warming. This process is known as :

Blocking

Ceiling

Flaring

Stooping

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2014

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The correct answer is Flaring.

Methane is a potent greenhouse gas. Methane flaring is a process where methane (typically waste gas like natural gas from oil/gas extraction, landfills, or wastewater treatment) is burned. Burning methane converts it primarily into carbon dioxide (CO2) and water vapor. While CO2 is also a greenhouse gas, methane has a much higher global warming potential (GWP) than CO2 over relevant time scales (e.g., GWP of methane is about 25-28 times that of CO2 over 100 years). Therefore, converting methane to CO2 through flaring reduces the overall warming impact compared to releasing the same amount of methane into the atmosphere.

Flaring is a common practice to dispose of unwanted methane, especially when it’s not economically viable to capture and utilize it. While flaring reduces the GWP compared to venting methane, it still produces CO2, which contributes to global warming. Alternatives include capturing methane for use as fuel or converting it to other chemicals.

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7. If a scientist reads an ambient temperature 273 K in the laboratory, w

If a scientist reads an ambient temperature 273 K in the laboratory, what will a doctor’s thermometer read it ?

0 degree Fahrenheit

32 degrees Fahrenheit

99 degrees Fahrenheit

– 100 degrees Fahrenheit

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Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2014

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The correct answer is 32 degrees Fahrenheit.

To convert temperature from Kelvin (K) to Fahrenheit (°F), we first convert Kelvin to Celsius (°C) and then Celsius to Fahrenheit.
The formula for converting Kelvin to Celsius is:
°C = K – 273.15
Given temperature is 273 K.
°C = 273 – 273.15 = -0.15 °C.
However, in many contexts, 273 K is treated as approximately 0°C, especially in simplified problems like this. Let’s use 0°C.

The formula for converting Celsius to Fahrenheit is:
°F = (°C × 9/5) + 32
Using °C = 0:
°F = (0 × 9/5) + 32
°F = 0 + 32
°F = 32.

So, 273 K is equivalent to 32°F. This corresponds to the freezing point of water.

The exact freezing point of water is 273.15 K or 0°C or 32°F. The value 273 K is a common approximation used in many problems.

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8. If every alternate letter of English Alphabet is written in lower case

If every alternate letter of English Alphabet is written in lower case (small letters) such that the 21^st letter is in capital letter and remaining letters are capitalized, then how many vowels will be written in capital letters ?

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2014

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The correct answer is 5.

Let’s list the letters of the English alphabet and their positions:
A(1) B(2) C(3) D(4) E(5) F(6) G(7) H(8) I(9) J(10) K(11) L(12) M(13) N(14) O(15) P(16) Q(17) R(18) S(19) T(20) U(21) V(22) W(23) X(24) Y(25) Z(26).

Rules:
1. Every alternate letter is in lower case. Starting with B (position 2), the letters at even positions (2, 4, 6, …, 26) are in lower case.
2. The 21st letter (U) is in capital letter.
3. Remaining letters are capitalized. The remaining letters are at odd positions (1, 3, 5, …, 25), *except* the 21st one which is specifically mentioned as capital.

Let’s apply the rules to the vowels (A, E, I, O, U):
– A is at position 1 (odd). It is not an alternate letter starting from B. It is one of the “remaining letters”. Rule 3 applies. Case: Capital.
– E is at position 5 (odd). It is not an alternate letter starting from B. It is one of the “remaining letters”. Rule 3 applies. Case: Capital.
– I is at position 9 (odd). It is not an alternate letter starting from B. It is one of the “remaining letters”. Rule 3 applies. Case: Capital.
– O is at position 15 (odd). It is not an alternate letter starting from B. It is one of the “remaining letters”. Rule 3 applies. Case: Capital.
– U is at position 21. Rule 2 specifically states it is in capital letter. Case: Capital.

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All 5 vowels (A, E, I, O, U) are written in capital letters.

The final casing of the alphabet according to the rules is:
A b C d E f G h I j K l M n O p Q r S t U v W x Y z
Vowels: A, E, I, O, U are all in capital case.

10. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List I
(Hormone)
A. Aldosterone
B. Oestrogen
C. Melatonin
D. Progesterone
List II
(Function)
1. Maintains female secondary sex characteristics
2. Controls circadian rhythm
3. Salt-retaming hormone
4. Sustains the pregnancy

Code :

	A	B	C	D
(a)	4	2	1	3
(b)	4	1	2	3
(c)	3	2	1	4
(d)	3	1	2	4

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2014

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Matching the hormones with their primary functions:
A. Aldosterone: This is a mineralocorticoid hormone that regulates sodium and potassium balance in the body, primarily by promoting sodium reabsorption in the kidneys. It is known as a salt-retaining hormone. (A matches 3)
B. Oestrogen (Estrogen): This is a primary female sex hormone responsible for the development and maintenance of female secondary sexual characteristics (like breast development, uterine growth, etc.) and plays a key role in the menstrual cycle. (B matches 1)
C. Melatonin: This hormone is produced by the pineal gland and plays a crucial role in regulating the body’s sleep-wake cycle, also known as the circadian rhythm. (C matches 2)
D. Progesterone: This hormone is vital for preparing the uterus for pregnancy, maintaining the uterine lining throughout pregnancy, and preventing premature contractions. It is essential for sustaining pregnancy. (D matches 4)
The correct matching is A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4.

Understanding the major roles of key hormones in the endocrine system is necessary for this question.

Aldosterone is part of the Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS). Oestrogen and Progesterone are key sex hormones produced by the ovaries, regulated by the pituitary hormones FSH and LH. Melatonin production is influenced by light exposure.

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