UPSC CAPF Archives

31. A camel adapts easily in a desert due to:

A camel adapts easily in a desert due to:

hump with stored food as fats

water cells in stomach to store metabolic water

nucleated Red Blood Cells

hair growth near eyes and nostrils

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Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2011

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A camel adapts easily in a desert due to several physiological and structural adaptations. Let’s evaluate the options:
A) hump with stored food as fats: Correct. The hump stores large amounts of fat. Metabolizing this fat provides energy and also produces metabolic water. This fat storage also helps insulate the body, reducing heat absorption.
B) water cells in stomach to store metabolic water: Incorrect. Camels do not store water in special stomach cells in this manner. While they are efficient at conserving water and can tolerate significant dehydration, their water is stored mainly in the bloodstream and tissues. Metabolic water is produced from the metabolism of fats (as in A), not stored directly in “water cells” in the stomach.
C) nucleated Red Blood Cells: Correct. Camel RBCs are oval and nucleated, which helps them flow even when blood is thickened during dehydration. They can also swell significantly when the camel rehydrates without bursting, unlike typical mammalian RBCs. This is a crucial adaptation for managing hydration.
D) hair growth near eyes and nostrils: Correct. Long eyelashes and hair in the nostrils are effective physical barriers that protect the eyes and respiratory passages from sandstorms.
Given that multiple options (A, C, D) describe actual adaptations, and the question asks for “a camel adapts easily in a desert due to”, implying selecting a correct reason from the list, and considering it’s an MCQ with a single correct answer format, there might be an intended “primary” adaptation or the most popularly known one. Option B is factually incorrect. Options A, C, and D are correct adaptations. However, if forced to choose one from A, C, D as the single best answer representing overall adaptation ‘easily’, it’s challenging. But since the provided answer is A, we mark A as correct. It’s possible the question intends to highlight the energy/water reserve aspect (A).

Camels possess several key adaptations for desert life, including fat storage in the hump for energy and metabolic water, tolerance to dehydration facilitated by specialized RBCs, efficient water conservation, and physical protection from sand and heat. Option B is factually incorrect.

Other camel adaptations include thick padded feet for walking on sand, tough mouth lining for eating thorny plants, and the ability to regulate body temperature over a wide range.

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32. If it is false that ‘no person can operate an industrial plant for the

If it is false that ‘no person can operate an industrial plant for the purpose of any scheduled industry in an air pollution control area without the prior consent of the State Board’, then, which of the following may be validly inferred?

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Some persons obtained the consent of the State Board but did not run a plant as industry in an air pollution control area

Someone did not obtain the consent of the State Board but ran a plant commercially in an air pollution control area

The State Board is the only authority to give authorization for opening industry in restricted air pollution control area

Some areas are under the jurisdiction of the State Board

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Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2011

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The statement given is “no person can operate an industrial plant for the purpose of any scheduled industry in an air pollution control area without the prior consent of the State Board”. This can be rephrased as “For any person, if they operate an industrial plant for a scheduled industry in an air pollution control area, then they must have the prior consent of the State Board.” Or, in categorical terms, “All persons operating X require Y”, where X = “an industrial plant for a scheduled industry in an air pollution control area” and Y = “prior consent of the State Board”.
The question states that this statement is FALSE. The negation of a universal affirmative statement (“All A are B”) is a particular negative statement (“Some A are not B”).
So, the negation of “All persons operating X require Y” is “Some persons operating X do NOT require Y”.
Let’s apply this to the original terms: “Some persons operating an industrial plant for a scheduled industry in an air pollution control area do not have the prior consent of the State Board”. This implies that there exists at least one person who is operating such a plant in such an area but did not obtain the required consent.
Looking at the options:
A) Some persons obtained the consent of the State Board but did not run a plant… This describes people who got consent but didn’t operate. The negation deals with people who *are operating* but *didn’t get consent*.
B) Someone did not obtain the consent of the State Board but ran a plant commercially in an air pollution control area. This matches the negation directly. “Someone” means “Some person”, “did not obtain the consent” matches “do not have the prior consent”, and “ran a plant commercially in an air pollution control area” matches “operating an industrial plant for a scheduled industry in an air pollution control area”.
C) The State Board is the only authority… This goes beyond the scope of the original statement, which only mentions obtaining consent *from* the State Board, not that they are the sole authority.
D) Some areas are under the jurisdiction of the State Board. The original statement implies the existence of such areas and the Board’s authority over them, but the *negation* of the specific rule does not necessarily *infer* the existence of these areas. The negation focuses on a violation of the rule.
Therefore, the only valid inference from the falsity of the original statement is that there are persons operating without consent, as described in option B.

The negation of a universal affirmative statement (All A are B) is a particular negative statement (Some A are not B). If the original statement is false, its negation is true.

This question tests the understanding of basic propositional logic, specifically the relationship between a universal statement and its negation (contradictory). In law and regulation, understanding the precise meaning and negation of rules is critical.

33. If it is true that ‘all pollutants are harmful’, identify which of the

If it is true that ‘all pollutants are harmful’, identify which of the following is invalid to infer from it?

Pollutants constitute a subset of harmful things

No pollutants are non-harmful

If anything is harmful, it is a pollutant

Some pollutants are harmful

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This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2011

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The given statement is “all pollutants are harmful”. This is a universal affirmative statement (All P are H, where P=Pollutants, H=Harmful). We need to identify which inference is invalid.
A) Pollutants constitute a subset of harmful things: This means every pollutant is a harmful thing, which is exactly what “all pollutants are harmful” means. This is a valid inference.
B) No pollutants are non-harmful: This means that it is not the case that some pollutants are not harmful, which implies all pollutants are harmful. This is the obversion of the original statement and is a valid inference.
C) If anything is harmful, it is a pollutant: This means “all harmful things are pollutants” (All H are P). This is the converse of the original statement “All P are H”. The converse of a universal affirmative statement is not necessarily true. For example, fire might be harmful, but it is not typically classified as a pollutant in the same category as, say, smoke or chemicals. This is an invalid inference.
D) Some pollutants are harmful: This is a particular affirmative statement (Some P are H). If “All P are H” is true (assuming there are pollutants), then “Some P are H” must also be true. This is a valid inference by subalternation.

Understanding logical inferences from universal affirmative statements (All A are B). Valid inferences include obversion (No A are non-B) and subalternation (Some A are B). The converse (All B are A) and inverse (All non-A are non-B) are generally not valid inferences.

In formal logic, this relates to the square of opposition and immediate inferences. The truth of a universal statement (All A are B) guarantees the truth of its subaltern (Some A are B) and its obverse (No A are non-B), but not necessarily its converse (All B are A) or contrapositive (All non-B are non-A), though the contrapositive IS valid if the original statement is true. In this case, the converse (C) is requested as the invalid inference.

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34. Which one among the following statements regarding Satavahanas is NOT

Which one among the following statements regarding Satavahanas is NOT correct?

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The Satavahanas are identified with the Andhras of the Puranas

The Satavahanas claimed Brahmana descent and followed Brahmanical Vedic tradition

Satavahanas and Shakas were involved in prolonged conflict

Vasishthiputra Satakarni defeated Shaka ruler Rudradaman I

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Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2011

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A) The Satavahanas are indeed identified with the Andhras mentioned in the Puranas, who ruled over the Deccan region. This statement is correct.
B) Some Satavahana rulers, notably Gautamiputra Satakarni, claimed to be Brahmanas (Ekabamhana) and performed Vedic sacrifices like Ashvamedha, indicating they followed and patronized Brahmanical Vedic traditions. This statement is correct.
C) The Satavahanas were engaged in prolonged conflicts with the Western Kshatrapas (Shakas), particularly over the control of fertile regions and trade routes, such as those in Malwa and Gujarat. This statement is correct.
D) According to the Junagadh inscription of Rudradaman I, the Shaka ruler Rudradaman I defeated the lord of Dakshinapatha (identified with Vashishthiputra Pulamavi, a Satavahana ruler) twice, but did not destroy him due to a matrimonial alliance. This indicates that Rudradaman I defeated the Satavahana ruler, not the other way around. Therefore, the statement that Vasishthiputra Satakarni defeated Shaka ruler Rudradaman I is incorrect.

The Satavahanas ruled in the Deccan region for several centuries. They were patrons of both Brahmanism and Buddhism, engaged in conflicts with the Shakas, and controlled important trade routes. Matrimonial alliances were sometimes used to resolve conflicts with rivals.

The most famous Satavahana ruler was Gautamiputra Satakarni. Important sources of information about the Satavahanas include Puranas, inscriptions (like the Nasik Prasasti of Gautami Balashri and the Junagadh inscription of Rudradaman I), coins, and literary works.

35. Which of the following statements about Sufism is/are correct? 1. Sufi

Which of the following statements about Sufism is/are correct?
1. Sufism was the mystical interpretation that developed within Islam.
2. Sufi philosophy highlighted the atmosphere of religious tolerance by speaking about the universal love in quest of the Almighty.
3. The Sufis developed a very complex philosophy and initiated very complicated practices unintelligible to the masses.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2

2 only

3 only

1 and 3

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Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2011

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Statement 1 is correct. Sufism is widely recognized as the mystical and ascetic dimension of Islam, focusing on the inner spiritual path to attain closeness with God.
Statement 2 is correct. Sufi philosophy emphasizes universal love, compassion, and tolerance, often transcending sectarian boundaries. Sufis sought a personal, devotional relationship with the Divine, which fostered an atmosphere of religious tolerance and appealed to people of different faiths.
Statement 3 is incorrect. While Sufism does involve complex philosophical ideas and meditative practices, many aspects of Sufism, such as devotional music (Qawwali), stories of saints, and participation in Urs (death anniversary) festivals, were accessible and popular among the masses. The core message of love and devotion was simple and widely understood. Sufis often used local languages and cultural elements to connect with common people.

Sufism is the mystical dimension of Islam that emphasizes inner purity, devotion, and achieving spiritual union with God through love and personal experience. It played a significant role in bridging religious divides and spreading Islam through peaceful means and cultural synthesis in various parts of the world, including India.

Important Sufi orders (Silsilas) in India include the Chishtis, Suhrawardis, Qadiris, and Naqshbandis. Sufi shrines (Dargahs) became centres of pilgrimage and cultural interaction.

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36. Who among the following was not a painter in the Mughal period ?

Who among the following was not a painter in the Mughal period ?

Mir Sayyid Ali

Abdus Samad

Bishan Das

Baz Bahadur

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Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2011

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Mir Sayyid Ali and Abdus Samad were two of the most prominent Persian painters brought to India by Emperor Humayun and who continued to work under Emperor Akbar, significantly influencing the development of Mughal miniature painting. Bishan Das was a renowned portrait painter during the reign of Emperor Jahangir, known for his realistic depictions. Baz Bahadur, on the other hand, was the Sultan of Malwa in the 16th century, famous for his love of music and his romantic association with Roopmati. He was not known to be a painter.

Mughal painting flourished under emperors like Akbar, Jahangir, and Shah Jahan, who patronized numerous artists. Famous Mughal painters included Mir Sayyid Ali, Abdus Samad, Daswant, Basawan, Mansur, Bishan Das, and others.

Mughal painting is characterized by its fusion of Persian miniature painting traditions with indigenous Indian styles, resulting in a unique blend. It often depicted court life, historical events, portraits, nature, and illustrations of Persian and Indian literary works.

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37. Which of the following statements regarding Home Rule Leagues in India

Which of the following statements regarding Home Rule Leagues in India are correct ?

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1. The movement was led by the moderate Congress leaders.
2. There were two Home Rule Leagues.
3. The movement became strong, because other mass agitations could not be launched by the Congress during the World War.
4. The government was non-reactive to the movement.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1, 2 and 3

2, 3 and 4

1 and 4 only

2 and 3 only

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Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2011

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Statement 1 is incorrect. The Home Rule Leagues were primarily led by prominent nationalist leaders often associated with the ‘extremist’ faction, such as Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Annie Besant, although they sought the cooperation of moderates.
Statement 2 is correct. There were two main Home Rule Leagues founded in India during this period: the Indian Home Rule League founded by Tilak in April 1916 and the All India Home Rule League founded by Annie Besant in September 1916.
Statement 3 is correct. The Home Rule movement gained momentum during World War I (1914-1918) as major Congress leaders decided not to launch large-scale agitations while the war was ongoing. This created a political vacuum that the Home Rule Leagues effectively filled by mobilizing public opinion for self-government.
Statement 4 is incorrect. The British government was not non-reactive. It took repressive measures against the Home Rule movement, including the arrest of Annie Besant and her associates in June 1917, which further intensified the movement and led to widespread protests.

The Home Rule Movement was a significant phase of the Indian national movement that demanded self-government (Home Rule) for India. It was characterized by the establishment of two leagues led by Tilak and Besant and occurred during World War I.

The Home Rule Movement used methods like public meetings, propaganda, and organized campaigns to popularize the demand for self-government. It helped in reviving the political activity that had slowed down after the Surat Split and during the early years of WWI, and also integrated moderate and extremist factions of the Congress to some extent.

38. In July, 2011 Eurozone’s 17 member countries agreed to give Greece a m

In July, 2011 Eurozone’s 17 member countries agreed to give Greece a massive financial bailout worth more than 150 billion dollars to try to rescue Greece’s shaken economy. In this respect, which of the following statements is/are correct ?

1. This is for the first time Greece has been given financial bailout by other European countries.
2. Private lenders including banks are also pledging support which will give Greece easier repayment terms.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

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1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

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Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2011

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Statement 1 is incorrect. Greece had received a financial bailout package from the Eurozone and IMF in May 2010, prior to the July 2011 agreement. Therefore, the July 2011 bailout was not the first time Greece was given financial assistance by other European countries.
Statement 2 is correct. The July 2011 bailout package involved significant private sector involvement. Private creditors, including banks, were indeed asked to contribute to the rescue by accepting a voluntary exchange of Greek bonds for new bonds with longer maturities and lower interest rates (often referred to as a “haircut” or debt restructuring), which effectively provided Greece with easier repayment terms.

The Greek sovereign debt crisis led to multiple bailout packages from Eurozone countries and the IMF. The 2011 bailout involved mandatory private sector participation in debt restructuring.

The Eurozone crisis was a multi-year period (roughly 2009-2012) involving difficulties for several Eurozone member countries (including Greece, Ireland, Portugal, Spain, and Cyprus) in financing their government debt or sustaining their banking sectors. The bailouts were aimed at preventing sovereign defaults and stabilizing the Eurozone.

39. The process by which heat is transmitted from the Sun to the Earth is

The process by which heat is transmitted from the Sun to the Earth is called

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Conduction

Convection

Radiation

Cosmic disturbances

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Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2011

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The process by which heat is transmitted from the Sun to the Earth is called Radiation.

Radiation is the transfer of energy through electromagnetic waves, which can travel through a vacuum. The space between the Sun and the Earth is largely a vacuum.

Conduction is the transfer of heat through direct contact, and convection is the transfer of heat through the movement of fluids (liquids or gases). Neither conduction nor convection can efficiently transfer heat across the vacuum of space. The Sun emits energy primarily in the form of electromagnetic radiation (including visible light, infrared, and ultraviolet), which travels to Earth and is absorbed or reflected.

40. Relative humidity

Relative humidity

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increases with increased temperature

decreases with increased temperature

decreases with decreased temperature

has no relation with increase or decrease of temperature

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Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2011

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Relative humidity decreases with increased temperature, assuming the absolute amount of water vapour in the air remains constant.

Relative humidity is defined as the ratio of the partial pressure of water vapour to the equilibrium vapour pressure of water at a given temperature. The equilibrium vapour pressure (the maximum amount of water vapour the air can hold) increases significantly with increasing temperature.

If the amount of water vapour in the air stays the same, but the temperature rises, the air’s capacity to hold water vapour increases. This means the actual vapour content becomes a smaller percentage of the maximum possible content, resulting in a decrease in relative humidity.