UPSC CAPF Archives

21. Consider the following statements: 1. The Great Northern Plains are

Consider the following statements:

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1. The Great Northern Plains are formed by basins of three distinct river systems – the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra.
2. They are one of the most densely populated areas on Earth.
3. Between the Yamuna at Delhi and the Bay of Bengal, nearly 1600 km away, there is a drop of only 200 metres in elevation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3

2 and 3 only

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

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This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2023

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Statements 1, 2 and 3 are all correct.

Statement 1: The Great Northern Plains of India are indeed formed by the depositional action of the three major river systems, namely the Indus, the Ganga, and the Brahmaputra, along with their numerous tributaries. This statement is correct.
Statement 2: These plains are characterized by fertile alluvial soils deposited by the rivers, a favourable climate, and abundant water resources. These factors support agriculture and have historically led to high population densities, making them one of the most densely populated areas on Earth. This statement is correct.
Statement 3: The Northern Plains have a very gentle slope, especially noticeable over large distances. The stretch between Delhi and the Bay of Bengal along the Ganga basin is about 1600 km long, and the total drop in elevation is only about 200 metres. This gentle gradient contributes to slow-moving rivers and the formation of depositional features. This statement is correct.

The Northern Plains are one of the most important physical divisions of India, covering a vast area. They are the “food basket” of India due to their high agricultural productivity. The plains are generally flat, with the land rising slightly towards the north (towards the foothills of the Himalayas) and west.

22. Which one of the following correctly explains the change in seasons on

Which one of the following correctly explains the change in seasons on Earth ?

Tilt of the Earth's axis

Rotation of the Earth on its own axis

Revolution of the Moon around the Sun

Interaction of the Earth with other planets

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UPSC CAPF – 2023

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The tilt of the Earth’s axis correctly explains the change in seasons on Earth.

The primary cause of the change in seasons on Earth is the tilt of the Earth’s rotational axis relative to its orbital plane (the plane of Earth’s path around the Sun), which is approximately 23.5 degrees. As the Earth revolves around the Sun over the course of a year, the tilted axis means that different parts of the Earth receive more direct sunlight at different times. When a hemisphere is tilted towards the Sun, it receives more direct sunlight and experiences summer, with longer days. When it is tilted away from the Sun, it receives less direct sunlight and experiences winter, with shorter days. The Earth’s revolution around the Sun is necessary for the tilt to cause different hemispheres to be oriented towards or away from the Sun over time.

The Earth’s rotation on its own axis causes the cycle of day and night. The revolution of the Moon around the Earth causes phases of the Moon and tides. The interaction of the Earth with other planets has minor gravitational effects but does not cause the regular seasonal changes. The slight eccentricity of Earth’s orbit means the Earth is closer to the Sun in January (perihelion) and farther in July (aphelion), which has a small influence on temperature but is secondary to the effect of the axial tilt in causing the seasons.

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23. In experiment #1, a bar magnet is moved towards a conducting wire loop

In experiment #1, a bar magnet is moved towards a conducting wire loop axially, with the magnet’s north pole facing the loop. In experiment #2, the same process as in experiment #1 is repeated except that the south pole of the magnet faces the loop. Which one of the following statements is true in this context?

The direction of current in the loop will be of opposite nature in both the experiments.

The direction of current in the loop will be the same in both the experiments.

No current will flow in either of the two experiments.

More current will flow in the loop in experiment #1.

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UPSC CAPF – 2023

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The direction of current in the loop will be of opposite nature in both the experiments.

This question is based on Faraday’s Law of electromagnetic induction and Lenz’s Law. Faraday’s Law states that a changing magnetic flux through a loop induces an electromotive force (EMF), which drives a current in a conducting loop. Lenz’s Law provides the direction of the induced current: it flows in such a direction as to oppose the change in magnetic flux that produced it.
In experiment #1, the North pole of the bar magnet is moved towards the loop. This increases the magnetic flux through the loop in the direction of the magnet’s approaching field lines (which emerge from the North pole). To oppose this increase, the induced current in the loop creates a magnetic field pointing away from the magnet. By the right-hand rule, this corresponds to a specific direction of current flow (e.g., counter-clockwise when viewed from the magnet).
In experiment #2, the South pole of the same magnet is moved towards the loop. This increases the magnetic flux through the loop in the direction of the magnet’s approaching field lines (which enter the South pole). To oppose this increase, the induced current in the loop creates a magnetic field pointing away from the magnet’s approaching South pole (i.e., in the direction of the field lines leaving a South pole). By the right-hand rule, this corresponds to the opposite direction of current flow compared to experiment #1 (e.g., clockwise when viewed from the magnet). Therefore, the direction of the induced current will be opposite in the two experiments.

Lenz’s law is a consequence of the conservation of energy. If the induced current’s magnetic field reinforced the change in flux, the process would accelerate, producing energy indefinitely, which violates the law of conservation of energy. The strength of the induced current depends on the speed of the magnet and the strength of its magnetic field.

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24. A wire of resistance R is cut into four equal parts. These parts are t

A wire of resistance R is cut into four equal parts. These parts are then connected in parallel. If the equivalent resistance of this combination is R’, then the ratio $\frac{\text{R’}}{\text{R}}$ is :

$rac{1}{16}$

$rac{1}{4}$

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This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2023

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The ratio $\frac{\text{R’}}{\text{R}}$ is $\frac{1}{16}$.

Let the original resistance of the wire be R. When the wire is cut into four equal parts, the resistance of each part becomes $\frac{R}{4}$ (assuming uniform material and cross-section). Let these four parts be $R_1, R_2, R_3, R_4$, where $R_1 = R_2 = R_3 = R_4 = \frac{R}{4}$. These parts are then connected in parallel. The equivalent resistance R’ of resistances connected in parallel is given by the formula: $\frac{1}{R’} = \frac{1}{R_1} + \frac{1}{R_2} + \frac{1}{R_3} + \frac{1}{R_4}$. Substituting the values, we get: $\frac{1}{R’} = \frac{1}{R/4} + \frac{1}{R/4} + \frac{1}{R/4} + \frac{1}{R/4} = \frac{4}{R} + \frac{4}{R} + \frac{4}{R} + \frac{4}{R} = \frac{4+4+4+4}{R} = \frac{16}{R}$. Therefore, $R’ = \frac{R}{16}$. The required ratio $\frac{\text{R’}}{\text{R}}$ is $\frac{R/16}{R} = \frac{1}{16}$.

The resistance of a wire is directly proportional to its length. Cutting a wire into four equal parts reduces the length of each part to one-fourth of the original length, thus reducing the resistance of each part to R/4. Connecting resistors in parallel decreases the total equivalent resistance compared to the individual resistances. This principle is used in electrical circuits to control current flow.

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25. A simple harmonic motion of a particle is represented as, y = 10 cos ω

A simple harmonic motion of a particle is represented as, y = 10 cos ωt 10. The acceleration of the particle at time t = $\frac{\pi}{2\omega}$ will be : (symbols here carry their usual meanings)

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10 ω

$-10omega^2$

$rac{10}{omega}$

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UPSC CAPF – 2023

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The correct answer is 0.

The given equation for the simple harmonic motion of a particle is $y = 10 \cos \omega t + 10$. This represents the displacement of the particle from a reference point (in this case, an origin shifted by 10 units). The velocity of the particle is the first derivative of displacement with respect to time: $v = \frac{dy}{dt} = \frac{d}{dt}(10 \cos \omega t + 10) = -10 \omega \sin \omega t$. The acceleration of the particle is the first derivative of velocity with respect to time: $a = \frac{dv}{dt} = \frac{d}{dt}(-10 \omega \sin \omega t) = -10 \omega^2 \cos \omega t$. We need to find the acceleration at time $t = \frac{\pi}{2\omega}$. Substituting this value of $t$ into the acceleration equation: $a\left(t=\frac{\pi}{2\omega}\right) = -10 \omega^2 \cos\left(\omega \cdot \frac{\pi}{2\omega}\right) = -10 \omega^2 \cos\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)$. Since $\cos\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right) = 0$, the acceleration at this time is $a = -10 \omega^2 \cdot 0 = 0$.

In simple harmonic motion described by $y = A \cos(\omega t + \phi) + C$, the term $A \cos(\omega t + \phi)$ represents the oscillation about the equilibrium position. The acceleration is proportional to the displacement from the equilibrium position and directed towards it ($a = -\omega^2 (y-C)$). In this case, the equilibrium position is at $y=10$. At $t = \frac{\pi}{2\omega}$, the displacement $y = 10 \cos(\frac{\pi}{2}) + 10 = 10(0) + 10 = 10$. Since the displacement is equal to the equilibrium position, the acceleration is zero, as expected.

26. The banks are required to maintain a certain ratio between their cash

The banks are required to maintain a certain ratio between their cash in hand and total assets. This ratio is known as :

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Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)

Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)

Central Bank Reserve (CBR)

Statutory Bank Ratio (SBR)

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UPSC CAPF – 2023

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Banks in India are required to maintain certain ratios as per regulations by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). The Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) is the ratio of a bank’s liquid assets (including cash in hand/vault cash, gold, and unencumbered approved government securities) to its Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL). While the question asks for a ratio between cash in hand and total assets, which is not a directly mandated standalone ratio by name, SLR is the key regulatory ratio that requires banks to hold liquid assets, *including cash in hand*, relative to their liabilities. Vault cash held by banks contributes to meeting the SLR requirement. Therefore, among the given options, SLR is the ratio most directly related to the requirement for banks to hold liquid assets, including cash in hand, even if the denominator mentioned in the question (“total assets”) is not precisely NDTL.

SLR is a required ratio that mandates banks to hold a certain percentage of their NDTL in liquid assets, including cash in hand (vault cash), gold, and approved securities.

Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) requires banks to hold a certain percentage of their NDTL as cash balances with the RBI, not cash in hand or against total assets. Central Bank Reserve (CBR) and Statutory Bank Ratio (SBR) are not standard regulatory terms in this context.

27. If all the people of the economy increase the proportion of income the

If all the people of the economy increase the proportion of income they save, the total value of savings in the economy will either decrease or remain unchanged. This phenomenon is known as :

Crowding out

Crowding in

Paradox of thrift

Paradox of prosperity

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UPSC CAPF – 2023

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The phenomenon described is known as the Paradox of Thrift (or Paradox of Saving). It is a concept in Keynesian economics stating that if everyone in an economy attempts to increase their saving rate simultaneously, the aggregate demand will fall. This leads to a decrease in production and income. Since aggregate saving depends on income (Saving = propensity to save * income), the fall in income can lead to a decrease in total saving, or at best, no increase, despite individuals trying to save more. The collective outcome is opposite to the individual intention.

The Paradox of Thrift highlights how increased individual saving efforts can collectively lead to lower overall income and potentially reduced total saving due to decreased aggregate demand.

Crowding out occurs when increased government borrowing raises interest rates, reducing private investment. Crowding in occurs when government spending stimulates economic activity and encourages private investment. The paradox of thrift applies primarily to economies operating below full employment, where a fall in aggregate demand leads to reduced output.

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28. Adequacy of foreign exchange reserves of a country is captured by whic

Adequacy of foreign exchange reserves of a country is captured by which of the following indicators?

Reserves to import ratio
Reserves to external debt ratio
Reserves to GDP ratio
Reserves to monetary aggregates

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1 and 3 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2 and 4 only

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UPSC CAPF – 2023

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Assessing the adequacy of a country’s foreign exchange reserves involves looking at multiple indicators because reserves serve various purposes (financing imports, managing external debt, dealing with capital outflows, maintaining exchange rate stability).
1. Reserves to import ratio: Measures the capacity to cover future import bills.
2. Reserves to external debt ratio: Indicates the ability to meet external debt obligations, particularly short-term debt.
3. Reserves to GDP ratio: Provides context on the size of reserves relative to the overall economy.
4. Reserves to monetary aggregates (like M2): Assesses vulnerability to potential capital flight if domestic money supply seeks to convert to foreign currency.
All these ratios provide valuable insights into different aspects of reserve adequacy and external vulnerability.

Adequacy of foreign exchange reserves is a multifaceted concept, evaluated using various ratios that relate reserves to potential drains such as imports, external debt, and domestic money supply.

While specific target levels for each ratio may vary depending on the country’s economic structure, exchange rate regime, and integration into global financial markets, all four listed indicators are commonly used by international bodies (like the IMF) and analysts to assess the strength and adequacy of a country’s reserve position.

29. Which one of the following is the largest component of revenue expendi

Which one of the following is the largest component of revenue expenditure in the Union Budget 2022 – 23 ?

Interest payments

Defense expenditure

Expenditure on healthcare

Subsidies

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UPSC CAPF – 2023

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In the Union Budget 2022-23 (as in many previous budgets), ‘Interest payments’ is the single largest component of the revenue expenditure. The government has accumulated significant debt over time, and servicing this debt through interest payments constitutes a major outflow from the revenue account.

Interest payments on accumulated government debt typically form the largest share of the central government’s revenue expenditure.

While other components like defence revenue expenditure, subsidies, and expenditure on healthcare are significant, budget estimates and actual figures consistently show interest payments as the dominant item in the revenue expenditure category for the Union government. For instance, in the 2022-23 Budget Estimate, Interest Payments were budgeted at ₹9,40,651 crore out of a total revenue expenditure of ₹31,94,633 crore.

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30. Fiscal deficit in the Union Budget means :

Fiscal deficit in the Union Budget means :

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the difference between current expenditure and current revenue.

net increase in the borrowings of the Union Government from the Reserve Bank of India.

the sum of budgetary deficits and the net increase in internal and external borrowings.

None of the above

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Fiscal deficit represents the total borrowing requirement of the government. It is defined as the difference between the government’s total expenditure and its total receipts (excluding borrowings). This difference must be financed by borrowing from domestic sources (like the market, banks, public) and external sources. Therefore, the fiscal deficit is equal to the net increase in the government’s liabilities, which primarily comprises internal and external borrowings. Option C, despite potentially awkward phrasing (“sum of budgetary deficits and…”), is the only option that directly relates fiscal deficit to the total borrowing (net increase in internal and external borrowings) needed to finance the government’s gap. The magnitude of the fiscal deficit is precisely equal to the net increase in total borrowings (including other liabilities and accounting for cash balance changes, which are usually minor).

Fiscal deficit is the difference between government spending and its revenue (excluding borrowings), representing the total amount the government needs to borrow. This borrowed amount is the net increase in its liabilities, including internal and external borrowings.

Option A describes revenue deficit. Option B describes borrowing from the RBI, which is only one part of internal borrowing and not the definition of the entire fiscal deficit. The concept of “budgetary deficits” in Option C is confusing, but the latter part, “net increase in internal and external borrowings,” accurately reflects how the fiscal deficit is financed and its magnitude.