UPSC CAPF Archives

11. Which one among the following Indian PSUs has been declared as the win

Which one among the following Indian PSUs has been declared as the winner at the Brandon Hall Group’s Excellence in Technology Award-2023 ?

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NTPC

BHEL

Balmer Lawrie

HPCL

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Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2024

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HPCL (Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited) was awarded the Brandon Hall Group Excellence in Technology Award-2023. Specifically, HPCL won a Gold award in the ‘Best Advance in Talent Management Technology’ category for its talent acquisition and management system, ‘Synergy’.

The Brandon Hall Group Excellence Awards recognize organizations that have successfully deployed programs, strategies, modalities, processes, systems, and tools that have achieved measurable results. HPCL was recognized for its innovative use of technology in HR.

This award highlights the digital transformation efforts within Indian PSUs, particularly in leveraging technology for human resources and talent management functions.

12. Which of the following countries chaired the 43rd ASEAN SUMMIT ?

Which of the following countries chaired the 43rd ASEAN SUMMIT ?

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Thailand

Philippines

Indonesia

Cambodia

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Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2024

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Indonesia chaired the 43rd ASEAN Summit, which was held in September 2023 in Jakarta, Indonesia. ASEAN’s chairmanship rotates annually among its member states.

In 2023, Indonesia held the rotating chairmanship of ASEAN. Consequently, Indonesia hosted and chaired the ASEAN Summits held during that year. The theme under Indonesia’s chairmanship was “ASEAN Matters: Epicentrum of Growth”.

ASEAN Summits are held twice a year. The 42nd and 43rd ASEAN Summits were both held under the chairmanship of Indonesia in 2023.

13. Which of the following statements about ‘Vibrant Village Programme’ of

Which of the following statements about ‘Vibrant Village Programme’ of the Government of India is/are correct ?

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1. It aims at comprehensive develop- ment of the identified villages
2. Fairs, festivals, sports meet etc. are organized under this programme

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1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

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Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2024

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Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct. The Vibrant Village Programme (VVP) aims for the comprehensive development of identified villages in blocks bordering the Northern border. Promoting tourism, cultural activities, fairs, festivals, and sports is part of the strategy to improve the quality of life and connect border populations.

The Vibrant Village Programme is a centrally sponsored scheme designed for the holistic development of selected border villages, focusing on improving infrastructure, opportunities, and social cohesion.

The VVP was announced in the Union Budget 2022-23. It aims to reverse migration from border areas by providing infrastructure and economic opportunities, thereby also enhancing border security. It covers villages in the states of Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, and the Union Territory of Ladakh.

14. Which of the following is NOT one of the pillars of India’s ‘Foreign T

Which of the following is NOT one of the pillars of India’s ‘Foreign Trade Policy-2023’ ?

Enlarging MFN (Most Favored Nations)

Export promotion through collabo- ration

Ease of doing business

Emerging areas – streamlining SCOMET policy

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Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2024

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‘Enlarging MFN (Most Favored Nations)’ is not listed as one of the explicitly stated pillars of India’s Foreign Trade Policy 2023. The policy outlines specific strategies and focus areas, none of which is termed “Enlarging MFN”.

The Foreign Trade Policy 2023 is structured around four pillars: (i) Incentive to Remission, (ii) Export Promotion through Collaboration – Exporters, States, Districts, Indian Missions, (iii) Ease of doing business – reduction in transaction cost and time, and (iv) Emerging Areas – E-commerce exports and streamlining SCOMET policy.

MFN is a status accorded by one country to another in international trade, meaning that the granting country must extend to the recipient country any trade advantages (such as low tariffs) that it extends to any other country. While India adheres to WTO principles including MFN, it is not framed as a strategic pillar for promoting exports in the domestic trade policy document.

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15. Which of the following statements with regard to the outcomes of the t

Which of the following statements with regard to the outcomes of the talks between the Prime Minister of India and the President of UAE held in February, 2024 is/are correct ?

1. Both countries signed an agreement on inter-linking of domestic debit/credit cards
2. An MoU was signed on cooperation in digital infrastructure projects
3. Both countries agreed that a Bilateral Investment Treaty shall be signed in the next meeting at the ministerial level

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1 and 2 only

2 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

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Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2024

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Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct, while Statement 3 is incorrect. The agreement on inter-linking of domestic debit/credit cards (Rupay and Jaywan) was signed. An MoU was signed on cooperation in digital infrastructure projects. However, the Bilateral Investment Treaty (BIT) was signed during this visit, not agreed to be signed in a future meeting.

The outcomes of the visit included significant agreements in the financial sector (linking payment systems) and digital infrastructure. The Bilateral Investment Treaty was a key deliverable of this specific visit.

The visit of the Prime Minister of India to the UAE in February 2024 saw several key agreements aimed at deepening economic and technological ties. The inter-linking of Rupay and Jaywan cards facilitates seamless cross-border transactions. The BIT is expected to boost bilateral investment flows by providing greater protection and certainty to investors.

16. Arrange the following sources of revenue of the Central Government in

Arrange the following sources of revenue of the Central Government in ascending manner in terms of percentage contribution to the total revenues of the Central Government in 2023-24

Union Excise Duty, Custom, Corporation Tax, GST

Custom, Union Excise Duty, GST, Corporation Tax

Custom, Union Excise Duty, Corporation Tax, GST

Custom, GST, Union Excise Duty, Corporation Tax

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This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2024

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Based on the Union Budget 2023-24 estimates (‘Rupee Comes From’ chart), the percentage contribution of the given sources to the Central Government’s gross tax revenues are approximately: GST (17%), Corporation Tax (15%), Income Tax (15%), Union Excise Duty (7%), and Customs (4%). Arranging the four specified sources in ascending order of their percentage contribution: Customs (4%) < Union Excise Duty (7%) < Corporation Tax (15%) < GST (17%). This order is represented by option C.

Tax revenues are the primary source of funding for the Central Government’s expenditure. Understanding the relative contribution of different taxes (like GST, Corporation Tax, Income Tax, Excise, Customs) provides insight into the tax structure and its evolution over time.

Since the introduction of GST, it has become one of the largest contributors to the Central Government’s revenue, comparable to or exceeding Income Tax and Corporation Tax. Other significant sources include Union Excise Duty on products like petroleum and Customs duties on imports.

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17. Which of the following is a part of the capital receipt of the Governm

Which of the following is a part of the capital receipt of the Government of India ?

1. Disinvestment receipts
2. Interest receipts
3. Small savings
4. Net market borrowing

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1 and 3 only

2 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

1, 3 and 4 only

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Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2024

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Capital receipts are government receipts that either create a liability or lead to a reduction in the government’s assets. Statement 1, Disinvestment receipts, are proceeds from selling government shares in PSUs, leading to a reduction in financial assets, hence they are Capital Receipts. Statement 2, Interest receipts on loans given by the government, are a form of non-tax revenue that does not create a liability or reduce assets (unless it’s recovery of principal loan amount, which is a capital receipt), so they are Revenue Receipts. Statement 3, Small savings deposits (e.g., PPF, NSC), represent funds borrowed from the public, creating a liability for the government, thus they are Capital Receipts (specifically, part of debt capital receipts if raised via borrowings or liabilities under Public Account). Statement 4, Net market borrowing, involves the government raising funds by issuing bonds etc., creating a liability to repay, hence it is a Capital Receipt (debt-creating). Therefore, 1, 3, and 4 are parts of the capital receipt of the Government of India.

Government receipts are classified into Revenue Receipts (like taxes, interest, dividends) and Capital Receipts (like borrowings, disinvestment, loan recoveries, small savings). This classification is fundamental to understanding the government’s fiscal position.

Capital receipts are used to finance capital expenditure (like infrastructure creation) and repay existing debt. Debt-creating capital receipts increase the government’s debt burden, while non-debt capital receipts (like disinvestment, loan recovery) help finance expenditure without adding to debt.

18. Retail core inflation is calculated excluding which of the following ?

Retail core inflation is calculated excluding which of the following ?

1. Food and beverages
2. Fuel and light
3. Transport and communication
4. Clothing and Education

Select the answer using the code given below :

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

3 and 4 only

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Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2024

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Retail core inflation in India, based on the Consumer Price Index (CPI), is generally calculated by excluding the volatile components of Food and Beverages (Statement 1) and Fuel and Light (Statement 2) from the headline CPI. This exclusion helps to reveal the underlying inflationary pressures in the economy that are less subject to seasonal or temporary supply shocks. Categories like Transport and communication (Statement 3) and Clothing and Education (Statement 4) are typically included in the calculation of core inflation, although price changes in transport can be indirectly affected by fuel costs. Therefore, only 1 and 2 are excluded.

Core inflation provides a measure of underlying inflation trends by removing highly volatile components like food and energy, which helps policymakers assess more persistent inflationary pressures.

In India, CPI-Combined is the main measure for tracking retail inflation. The CPI basket is divided into major groups: Food and Beverages, Pan, tobacco and intoxicants, Clothing and Footwear, Housing, Fuel and light, and Miscellaneous (which includes items like household goods, health, transport, communication, education, recreation, etc.).

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19. Consider the following statements: 1. National Monetisation Pipelin

Consider the following statements:

1. National Monetisation Pipeline estimates that for the period 2022-2025, the top three sectors in terms of monetization potential are roads, railways, and oil and gas pipelines
2. Under the National Monetisation Pipeline, the instruments to be used for asset monetization include Public-Private Partnership concessions and Infrastructure Investment Trusts

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

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Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2024

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Statement 1 is incorrect. While Roads and Railways are indeed among the top sectors for monetization under the National Monetisation Pipeline (NMP) for FY22-FY25, the third sector with high potential was Power Transmission, followed by Power Generation, Natural Gas Pipelines, etc. Oil and Gas pipelines combined accounted for a smaller percentage than Power Transmission. Statement 2 is correct. The NMP framework explicitly includes Public-Private Partnership (PPP) concessions, Operation and Maintenance contracts, and the use of structured financing vehicles like Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) and Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs) as instruments for asset monetization.

The National Monetisation Pipeline (NMP) is a plan to unlock the value of underutilized public sector assets across infrastructure sectors through temporary transfer of revenue rights to private players.

The NMP identifies brownfield assets across sectors like roads, railways, power, telecom, warehousing, ports, mining, aviation, and stadiums for monetization. The underlying principle is to leverage private sector efficiency and capital for operation and maintenance while retaining ownership with the government entity.

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20. What were the main reforms undertaken under the New Economic Policy of

What were the main reforms undertaken under the New Economic Policy of the early 1990s ?

1. Trade liberalization
2. Public Sector Disinvestment
3. Poverty Alleviation
4. Rapid industrialization

Select the answer using the code given below :

1 only

3 and 4

1 and 2

2 and 4

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2024

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The New Economic Policy (NEP) of the early 1990s, initiated in 1991, is characterized by liberalization, privatization, and globalization (LPG reforms). Statement 1, Trade liberalization, involved reducing restrictions on imports and exports, which is a core part of liberalization and globalization. Statement 2, Public Sector Disinvestment, involved selling off government stakes in Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs), which is a key aspect of privatization. Statements 1 and 2 were central to the structural reforms under the NEP. Statement 3, Poverty Alleviation, was a major goal of economic development and the government ran programs for it, but it was not a specific structural reform measure *of* the NEP itself, although it was hoped that growth spurred by NEP would help alleviate poverty. Statement 4, Rapid industrialization, was a desired outcome of the reforms aimed at improving efficiency and competitiveness, rather than being a specific reform step itself like dismantling licenses or opening up trade. Therefore, the main reforms were Trade liberalization and Public Sector Disinvestment.

The 1991 NEP marked a fundamental shift from a mixed economy with significant state control towards a more market-oriented system, dismantling the ‘License Raj’ and integrating India with the global economy.

Key aspects of the NEP included industrial deregulation, financial sector reforms, tax reforms, and policies promoting foreign investment. The reforms were a response to a severe economic crisis, including a balance of payments crisis and high fiscal deficits.

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