UPSC CAPF Archives

41. The distance between two successive crests or troughs of sea waves is

The distance between two successive crests or troughs of sea waves is called as

Wavelength

Wave height

Wave frequency

Fetch

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The correct option is A. The distance between two successive crests or troughs of a wave is defined as its wavelength.

– Wavelength is the horizontal distance between corresponding points on consecutive waves, such as from crest to crest or trough to trough.
– Wave height is the vertical distance between the crest (highest point) and the trough (lowest point) of a wave.
– Wave frequency is the number of complete wave cycles (or crests/troughs) that pass a fixed point in a given unit of time.
– Fetch is the distance over water that the wind has blown in a consistent direction and speed, influencing the size of the waves generated.

These terms are fundamental properties used to describe waves, including ocean waves. Understanding these characteristics is important in oceanography, coastal engineering, and navigation.

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42. Which of the following sectors contribute in recent years to the deter

Which of the following sectors contribute in recent years to the deterioration of asset quality of commercial banks by way of Non-Performing Assets?

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1. Agriculture and allied sector
2. Industrial sector
3. Infrastructure sector
4. Information technology sector

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

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The correct option is B. The Industrial sector and Infrastructure sector have been major contributors to the deterioration of asset quality of commercial banks in recent years by way of Non-Performing Assets (NPAs).

– Statement 1 (Agriculture and allied sector): The agriculture sector does contribute to NPAs, often due to factors like climate dependence and price volatility, but typically accounts for a smaller share of the overall systemic NPA problem compared to large corporate loans.
– Statement 2 (Industrial sector): The industrial sector, particularly manufacturing, has been a significant source of NPAs due to factors like economic slowdown, global competition, and project delays.
– Statement 3 (Infrastructure sector): Infrastructure projects involve huge investments, long gestation periods, and regulatory hurdles, making them highly susceptible to delays and cost overruns, which significantly contribute to NPAs in the banking sector.
– Statement 4 (Information technology sector): The IT sector in India is generally characterized by high growth, lower debt-to-equity ratios compared to traditional industries, and has not been a significant source of large-scale NPAs for commercial banks.

India’s banking sector faced a significant NPA crisis, particularly in the period leading up to and during the mid-2010s. This crisis was largely attributed to excessive lending during the previous boom period, especially to large corporate houses in the infrastructure and core industrial sectors, many of which subsequently faced financial difficulties. This phenomenon was often referred to as the “twin balance sheet problem” (stressed assets in banks and stressed balance sheets of corporates).

43. Which one of the following is NOT true of socialism ?

Which one of the following is NOT true of socialism ?

Socialists analyse society in terms of income distribution

It emphasises the centrality of community

Socialists believe that class divi-sions in society are a fact and therefore irremediable

It believes that material benefits should be distributed on the basis of need

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The correct option is C, as socialists generally aim to eliminate or reduce class divisions, not consider them irremediable.

– Option A is true: Socialism is fundamentally concerned with economic inequality and the distribution of wealth and income, often analyzing society through this lens.
– Option B is true: Socialism emphasizes the collective or community over the individual, advocating for social welfare and community control of resources or production.
– Option C is false: While many forms of socialism, particularly Marxism, acknowledge the existence and conflict of classes (like the bourgeoisie and proletariat), a core goal is to overcome these divisions and move towards a classless society or one with significantly reduced class distinctions. They see class divisions as a consequence of economic systems (capitalism) that can and should be remedied.
– Option D is true: A common principle in socialist thought is the distribution of resources and benefits based on need, contrasting with capitalist principles of distribution based on contribution or market forces.

Socialism is an economic and political philosophy encompassing a range of economic and social systems characterised by social ownership of the means of production and workers’ self-management of enterprises. It includes diverse theoretical and practical models, from market socialism to centrally planned economies, all generally aimed at greater equality and social justice than capitalism.

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44. The Governor of a state may exercise discretionary powers when 1. he

The Governor of a state may exercise discretionary powers when

1. he or she is not convinced by the advice of the Council of Ministers
2. the Constitution requires him/her to act in his/her discretion in certain matters
3. he or she is appointed as the administrator of an adjoining Union Territory

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

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1, 2 and 3

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

3 only

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The correct option is A, as the Governor may exercise discretionary powers in all three mentioned situations.

– Statement 1 is correct: While generally bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers, the Governor may use discretion in situations where the advice is not available or when they need to assess the political situation, such as selecting a Chief Minister when no single party has a clear majority, or dismissing a ministry that has lost confidence of the house. These actions can be described as the Governor acting when not convinced by the viability or constitutionality of the existing arrangement or advice.
– Statement 2 is correct: Article 163(1) explicitly states that the Governor acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers “except in so far as he is by or under this Constitution required to exercise his functions or any of them in his discretion”. There are several such specific requirements under the Constitution (e.g., reserving a bill for the President’s consideration under Article 200, recommending President’s Rule under Article 356 in case of breakdown of constitutional machinery).
– Statement 3 is correct: As per Article 239(2), when a Governor of a state is appointed as the administrator of an adjoining Union Territory, he exercises his functions as administrator independently of his Council of Ministers, i.e., in his discretion or on the advice of an Administrator’s Council if one exists.

The discretionary powers of the Governor are a significant feature of the Indian federal system, allowing the Governor to act independently of the state government in certain specific circumstances as defined by the Constitution or evolving political conventions. However, the exercise of discretionary powers has often been a subject of controversy and judicial review.

45. In relation to the fundamental duties enshrined in the Constitution of

In relation to the fundamental duties enshrined in the Constitution of India, which one of the following is NOT correct ?

The fundamental duties were not originally a part of the Constitu-tion

To safeguard public property and abjure violence are fundamental duties

They are not enforceable through writs

They may not be used for deter-mining constitutionality of laws

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The correct option is D. Fundamental duties *may* be used by courts in determining the constitutionality of laws, not “may not”.

– Option A is correct: Fundamental duties were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. They were not part of the original Constitution.
– Option B is correct: Article 51A(i) lists “to safeguard public property and to abjure violence” as one of the fundamental duties.
– Option C is correct: Fundamental duties are not directly enforceable by courts through writs like Fundamental Rights are.
– Option D is incorrect: The Supreme Court has held that courts can refer to fundamental duties while testing the constitutionality of a law. If a law seeks to implement a fundamental duty, it can be considered reasonable and thus constitutional.

Fundamental duties are contained in Part IVA of the Constitution, consisting of a single Article 51A. They are not justiciable in the same way as Fundamental Rights, but they serve as a guide to citizens and the state. The enforceability of fundamental duties has been a subject of legal debate, but their significance as a reference point for constitutional interpretation is acknowledged by the judiciary.

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46. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. The Satavahana

Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

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1. The Satavahanas ruled over parts of western India and the Deccan
2. The Satavahanas repaired and rebuilt Sudarshana Lake

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

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Let’s evaluate the statements about the Satavahanas:
1. The Satavahanas ruled over parts of western India and the Deccan: The Satavahana dynasty was a prominent kingdom in the Deccan region, which includes parts of present-day Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana. Their rule also extended into parts of Karnataka and occasionally into Western India (like northern Konkan and parts of Gujarat). This statement is correct.
2. The Satavahanas repaired and rebuilt Sudarshana Lake: Sudarshana Lake was an artificial reservoir located near Girnar in Gujarat. It was originally constructed during the Maurya period (specifically under Chandragupta Maurya, with contributions from Ashoka). Historical records, particularly the Junagadh rock inscription of Rudradaman I (a Western Kshatrapa ruler, 2nd century CE), state that Rudradaman I repaired the lake after it was damaged by a storm. Later, the Gupta emperor Skandagupta also repaired it (5th century CE) as mentioned in the Junagadh inscription. There is no historical evidence connecting the Satavahana dynasty with the repair or rebuilding of Sudarshana Lake. So, this statement is incorrect.
Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.

The Satavahanas ruled in the Deccan and parts of Western India. The Sudarshana Lake was built by the Mauryas and repaired by Western Kshatrapas (Rudradaman I) and Guptas (Skandagupta), not the Satavahanas.

The Satavahana dynasty lasted for several centuries (roughly 1st century BCE to 3rd century CE) and played a significant role in the political and cultural history of the Deccan. Their conflict with the Western Kshatrapas over control of regions like Maharashtra and Gujarat was a recurring theme in their history.

47. Which of the following are prescribed as the duties of Vaishyas accord

Which of the following are prescribed as the duties of Vaishyas according to the Dharmashastras?

1. Studying the Vedas
2. Engaging in trade

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

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Dharmashastras are ancient Indian legal and ethical texts that prescribe duties (dharma) for individuals based on their varna (social class). According to these texts:
– Brahmins: Studying and teaching the Vedas, performing sacrifices, giving and receiving gifts.
– Kshatriyas: Studying the Vedas (but not teaching), protecting the people, administering justice, performing sacrifices, engaging in warfare.
– Vaishyas: Studying the Vedas (though often less emphasized than for Brahmins/Kshatriyas), engaging in trade (vanijya), cattle rearing (pashupalya), and agriculture (krishi), performing sacrifices, lending money.
– Shudras: Serving the other three varnas, particularly Brahmins.
Let’s evaluate the statements regarding Vaishyas:
1. Studying the Vedas: While some texts mention that Vaishyas could study the Vedas, it was not considered a primary or universally obligatory duty in the same way it was for Brahmins. Some interpretations restrict deep Vedic study or teaching to Brahmins. However, the right to study was generally granted to the upper three varnas (dvijas – twice-born). So this is partially true but not the defining primary duty.
2. Engaging in trade: This is explicitly and consistently mentioned as a primary duty and occupation of Vaishyas in Dharmashastras.
Comparing the two, engaging in trade is the *most* prescribed and defining duty among the options for Vaishyas according to Dharmashastras. Often, studying Vedas for Vaishyas was limited compared to Brahmins. Considering the options and the typical emphasis in Dharmashastras, trade is the core duty listed.

Engaging in trade, agriculture, and cattle rearing were the primary prescribed duties/occupations for Vaishyas according to Dharmashastras. Studying the Vedas was sometimes permitted but not emphasized as their core duty compared to Brahmins.

The division of duties based on varna was an idealized model presented in these texts, and the actual social and economic practices varied in different regions and periods. The three upper varnas were considered ‘dvijas’ (twice-born) and had the right to Vedic initiation (upanayana), which was a prerequisite for Vedic study.

*Correction*: Re-evaluating statement 1. Dharmashastras generally state that the three dvija varnas (Brahmin, Kshatriya, Vaishya) have the right to Vedic study. For example, Manusmriti states that the Vaishya should study the Vedas, perform sacrifices, lend money, etc. So, studying the Vedas was indeed a prescribed duty for Vaishyas. Therefore, both statements are correct according to the Dharmashastras.

Let’s re-assess ID 26394 based on this correction.
1. Studying the Vedas: Yes, prescribed for all dvijas, including Vaishyas.
2. Engaging in trade: Yes, a primary occupation and duty.
Both statements are correct.

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Revised Explanation for ID 26394:

According to the Dharmashastras, the society was divided into four varnas, each with prescribed duties (dharma). The Vaishyas were part of the ‘dvija’ or twice-born varnas, along with Brahmins and Kshatriyas.
1. Studying the Vedas: Dharmashastras explicitly state that Vaishyas, as members of the dvija varnas, have the right and duty to study the Vedas, although the emphasis and depth might differ compared to Brahmins. For instance, Manusmriti includes studying the Vedas as a duty of the Vaishya. So, this statement is correct.
2. Engaging in trade: Trade (vanijya), along with agriculture (krishi) and cattle rearing (pashupalya), were the primary and defining occupations and duties prescribed for the Vaishyas. So, this statement is correct.
Since both statements are correct according to the Dharmashastras, the correct option is C.

Dharmashastras prescribed both studying the Vedas and engaging in trade as duties for the Vaishyas.

The Dharmashastras provided an ideal blueprint for social and religious order, outlining duties for each varna, ashrama (stage of life), etc. While studying the Vedas was a right of the three upper varnas, the primary economic duties like trade, agriculture, and cattle rearing were specifically assigned to the Vaishyas.

48. Which one of the following is NOT listed as one of the sixteen mahajan

Which one of the following is NOT listed as one of the sixteen mahajana-padas in the pre-Mauryan period?

Kuru

Vatsa

Gandhara

Kalinga

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Ancient Indian texts, such as the Anguttara Nikaya (a Buddhist text) and the Bhagavati Sutra (a Jaina text), list sixteen Mahajanapadas (Great Kingdoms) that existed in the Indian subcontinent during the 6th-4th centuries BCE, in the pre-Mauryan period. The commonly listed Mahajanapadas are: Anga, Magadha, Kashi, Kosala, Vriji (Vajji), Malla, Chedi, Vatsa, Kuru, Panchala, Matsya (Machcha), Surasena, Asmaka, Avanti, Gandhara, and Kamboja.
Let’s check the options:
A) Kuru: Is one of the sixteen Mahajanapadas.
B) Vatsa: Is one of the sixteen Mahajanapadas.
C) Gandhara: Is one of the sixteen Mahajanapadas.
D) Kalinga: The region of Kalinga (modern Odisha) was a significant political entity, but it is not listed among the sixteen Mahajanapadas in the standard ancient lists for this period. It became particularly prominent during the reign of Ashoka, who conquered it in the 3rd century BCE.

The sixteen Mahajanapadas were prominent kingdoms in North India during the pre-Mauryan period. Kalinga was a separate kingdom that gained historical prominence later.

The lists of Mahajanapadas sometimes vary slightly between different texts. However, Kalinga is consistently absent from the lists of the sixteen Mahajanapadas of the 6th-4th centuries BCE.

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49. Which of the following is/are the most distinctive artefacts of the Ha

Which of the following is/are the most distinctive artefacts of the Harappan Civilisation?

1. Steatite seal
2. Bricks of a standardised ratio
3. Gold bangles
4. Silver spittoon

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only

1 and 2 only

2, 3 and 4

1, 2 and 4

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Distinctive artefacts of a civilization are those that are unique or highly characteristic of that culture.
1. Steatite seal: Harappan seals with their unique script and animal motifs are considered one of the most distinctive and representative artefacts of the civilization. They are found in large numbers and across the extent of the Harappan world.
2. Bricks of a standardised ratio: The use of kiln-fired bricks in a specific, standardized ratio (typically 1:2:4 for thickness, width, and length) is a hallmark of Harappan urban planning and construction techniques, making it a highly distinctive feature.
3. Gold bangles: While gold ornaments were found in Harappan sites, bangles are a common form of ornament found in many cultures, making them less distinctly Harappan compared to seals or standardized bricks.
4. Silver spittoon: Silver objects were used, but a ‘spittoon’ is not typically highlighted as one of the most significant or distinctive artefact types representing the civilization as a whole.
Therefore, Steatite seals and Bricks of a standardised ratio are considered the most distinctive artefacts among the given options.

Harappan seals and their highly standardized brick architecture are widely recognized as prime identifying characteristics of the civilization.

Other significant artefacts include pottery, weights and measures (known for their accuracy), bronze figures (like the Dancing Girl), and terracotta figurines. However, seals and bricks often stand out due to their widespread presence and unique features.

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50. In which of the following states high yielding varieties of food grain

In which of the following states high yielding varieties of food grains were introduced as part of the first phase of Green Revolution (1966-72)?

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1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Tamil Nadu
3. Punjab
4. Haryana

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1, 2 and 3

2, 3 and 4

1 and 2 only

3 and 4 only

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The first phase of the Green Revolution in India (around 1966-72) primarily focused on areas with assured irrigation facilities to maximize the impact of High-Yielding Varieties (HYVs) of wheat and rice. The initial thrust was on wheat in the northern plains. The states that were major beneficiaries and participants in this first phase, particularly for wheat, were Punjab, Haryana, and parts of Western Uttar Pradesh. Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu also saw introduction of HYV rice, but Punjab and Haryana were central to the *initial* success story, especially in the 1960s. Therefore, among the options provided, Punjab (3) and Haryana (4) were definitely part of the first phase’s core focus areas for the introduction of HYVs.

The initial phase of the Green Revolution in India (1966-72) primarily targeted well-irrigated areas in states like Punjab, Haryana, and Western Uttar Pradesh, focusing on HYVs of wheat.

The success in wheat production during the first phase was remarkable, leading to increased food grain availability and reducing India’s dependence on imports. Later phases expanded the focus to other crops and regions.