UPSC CAPF Archives

41. Which one of the following statements with reference to the Nebular Hy

Which one of the following statements with reference to the Nebular Hypothesis for the origin of Solar System is correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”The initiation of the nebular hypothesis can be considered as a diffuse, roughly spherical, slowly rotating expanding nebula” option2=”As a result of rotation and expansion, a disk is formed with matter concentrated in the centre” option3=”Expansion continues with the formation of the proto-Sun and the rings of material are left behind” option4=”The material in the rings get condensed and form the planets that revolve in orbits around the Sun” correct=”option4″]

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UPSC CAPF – 2024

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Statement D correctly describes a part of the process according to the Nebular Hypothesis.

The Nebular Hypothesis postulates that the Solar System formed from a contracting cloud of gas and dust (a nebula). As the nebula contracted under gravity, it rotated faster and flattened into a disk. The central part formed the proto-Sun, and the material in the disk accreted and condensed into planetesimals, which further combined to form the planets orbiting the Sun.

Statements A, B, and C incorrectly describe the initial state or the process as involving expansion rather than contraction. The formation of a disk and the subsequent condensation and accretion of material into planets within that disk are key stages of the hypothesis.

42. Where does podsolization take place ?

Where does podsolization take place ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Regions in high middle latitudes” option2=”Coastal regions in lower latitudes” option3=”Regions with hot and humid climate” option4=”Regions having arid climate” correct=”option1″]

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Podsolization takes place primarily in regions in high middle latitudes.

Podsolization is a soil-forming process that occurs in cool, humid climates, typically under coniferous or mixed forests, on sandy parent materials. This process leads to the leaching of iron and aluminum from the surface layers and their accumulation in deeper horizons, resulting in distinctive soil profiles known as podzols or spodosols. These conditions are characteristic of many regions in high middle latitudes (e.g., Boreal forest regions).

Other soil-forming processes like laterization are associated with hot, humid climates (tropical regions), calcification with arid climates, and gleization with waterlogged conditions.

43. Consider the following characteristics of a type of wind : They occu

Consider the following characteristics of a type of wind :

They occur at upper levels in the atmosphere
They are subjected to two forces, a pressure gradient force and the Coriolis force
When the forces balance, air moves at right angles to the pressure gradient, parallel to the isobars

Identify the type of wind on the basis of the given characteristics :

[amp_mcq option1=”Jet Stream” option2=”Geostrophic Wind” option3=”Westerlies” option4=”Easterlies” correct=”option2″]

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UPSC CAPF – 2024

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The characteristics describe a Geostrophic Wind.

Geostrophic wind is a theoretical wind that results from an exact balance between the Coriolis force and the pressure gradient force. It flows parallel to isobars. This balance typically occurs at upper levels of the atmosphere where friction is negligible. Jet streams are a specific example of strong geostrophic winds in the upper atmosphere, but the description fits the general definition of a geostrophic wind.

The pressure gradient force acts perpendicular to isobars from high to low pressure. The Coriolis force acts at a right angle to the wind direction (to the right in the Northern Hemisphere, left in the Southern Hemisphere). In geostrophic balance, these forces are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction, causing the wind to flow parallel to isobars.

44. Which of the following statements regarding faunal resources of India

Which of the following statements regarding faunal resources of India is/are correct ?

High degree of endemism has been noticed in the biodiversity hotspots of India
Of the total biosphere reserves in India, the Sundarbans has the largest number of species and Nokrek has the smallest number of species

Select the answer using the codes given below:

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option1″]

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UPSC CAPF – 2024

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Statement 1 is correct. Statement 2 is likely incorrect or difficult to verify definitively.

Biodiversity hotspots are regions with high levels of biodiversity and a large proportion of endemic species. India’s biodiversity hotspots (Western Ghats, Eastern Himalayas, etc.) are known for high endemism. Making definitive claims about the largest/smallest number of species across all biosphere reserves (Statement 2) is difficult without specific, comprehensive, and standardized surveys across all reserves, which vary greatly in size, habitat diversity, and species inventories. Statement 1 is a fundamental characteristic of biodiversity hotspots.

Endemism is the ecological state of a species being unique to a defined geographic location, such as an island, nation, country or other defined zone, or habitat type. Biodiversity hotspots are crucial for conservation efforts due to their unique and threatened species.

45. Consider the following statements regarding the rotation of the Earth

Consider the following statements regarding the rotation of the Earth :

Since the Earth rotates by 15° each hour, time zones normally differ by one hour
At the International Date Line, the calendar day changes – advancing a day for eastward travel, dropping back a day for westward travel
Daylight saving time advances the clock by one hour
The Moon rotates and revolves about the Earth in the same direction that the Earth revolves around the Sun

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”3 and 4 only” option3=”1, 3 and 4″ option4=”2, 3 and 4″ correct=”option3″]

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UPSC CAPF – 2024

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Statements 1, 3, and 4 are correct. Statement 2 is incorrect.

The Earth rotates approximately 15 degrees of longitude per hour, which is the basis for standard time zones. Daylight Saving Time involves advancing clocks, typically by one hour. The Moon orbits and rotates in the same direction as Earth orbits the Sun (counter-clockwise when viewed from above the North Pole). The International Date Line works such that crossing it from west to east causes the date to go back a day, while crossing from east to west causes the date to advance a day.

Standard time zones are nominally 15 degrees wide, corresponding to one hour difference, although political boundaries often cause deviations. The International Date Line is located roughly along the 180° longitude. The synchronous rotation of the Moon (rotating and revolving at the same rate and direction) is why the same side of the Moon always faces Earth.

46. Which one of the following structure is NOT found in prokaryotes ?

Which one of the following structure is NOT found in prokaryotes ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Nuclear envelope” option2=”Cell membrane” option3=”Ribosome” option4=”Cell wall” correct=”option1″]

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UPSC CAPF – 2024

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The correct option is A. The nuclear envelope is a structure that is NOT found in prokaryotes.

– Prokaryotic cells (like bacteria and archaea) lack a true nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles.
– The genetic material (DNA) in prokaryotes is located in a region called the nucleoid, which is not enclosed by a membrane.
– The nuclear envelope is the double membrane that surrounds the nucleus in eukaryotic cells.

Cell membranes are present in all cells, prokaryotic and eukaryotic, as they define the cell boundary. Ribosomes, responsible for protein synthesis, are also present in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes, although they differ slightly in size (70S in prokaryotes, 80S in eukaryotes). Cell walls are present in most prokaryotes (like bacteria) and some eukaryotes (like plants and fungi), but not in animal cells.

47. In an ecosystem why is the number of trophic levels of a food chain us

In an ecosystem why is the number of trophic levels of a food chain usually limited ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Lower trophic level has lesser energy than the higher trophic level” option2=”Because of the loss of energy at each trophic level” option3=”Higher trophic level individual can control the lower ones more efficiently” option4=”Limited trophic level makes a food chain less vulnerable to parasites” correct=”option2″]

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UPSC CAPF – 2024

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The correct option is B. The number of trophic levels in a food chain is usually limited because of the significant loss of energy at each trophic level.

– According to the 10% rule of energy transfer in ecosystems, only about 10% of the energy available at one trophic level is transferred to the next higher trophic level. The rest is lost as heat, used for metabolic processes, or not consumed.
– This drastic reduction in available energy at each successive level limits the biomass and population size that can be supported.
– After a few trophic levels, there is insufficient energy remaining to support a viable population of organisms at a higher level, thus limiting the food chain length.

Lower trophic levels (producers) contain the most energy (biomass). Energy flows unidirectionally up the food chain, becoming less available at each step. While other factors like biomass and population dynamics play a role, the fundamental limit is imposed by energy transfer efficiency.

48. Which one of the following is the correct chronology of invention/ dis

Which one of the following is the correct chronology of invention/ discovery in the field of Bio-technology ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Discovery of Plasmid, Double Helical structure of DNA, DNA fingerprinting, cloning of Dolly” option2=”Double Helical structure of DNA, Discovery of Plasmid, DNA fingerprinting, cloning of Dolly” option3=”DNA fingerprinting, cloning of Dolly, Double Helical structure of DNA, Discovery of Plasmid” option4=”Double Helical structure of DNA, DNA fingerprinting, Discovery of Plasmid, cloning of Dolly” correct=”option1″]

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UPSC CAPF – 2024

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The correct option is A. The correct chronological order of the listed events in the field of biotechnology is: Discovery of Plasmid, Double Helical structure of DNA, DNA fingerprinting, cloning of Dolly.

– Discovery of Plasmid: Although observed earlier, the term “plasmid” was coined by Joshua Lederberg in 1952.
– Double Helical structure of DNA: Watson and Crick published their model of the DNA double helix in 1953.
– DNA fingerprinting: Developed by Sir Alec Jeffreys in 1984.
– Cloning of Dolly: Dolly the sheep was born in July 1996, and her birth was announced in 1997.

This sequence reflects the foundational molecular biology discoveries in the 1950s paving the way for later applied technologies like DNA fingerprinting and cloning in the 1980s and 1990s.

50. In what form excess of glucose is stored in human body ?

In what form excess of glucose is stored in human body ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Fructose” option2=”Glycogen” option3=”Glucose” option4=”Starch” correct=”option2″]

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UPSC CAPF – 2024

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The correct option is B. In the human body, excess glucose is stored primarily in the liver and muscles in the form of glycogen.

– Glycogen is a complex polysaccharide, a branched polymer of glucose.
– This process of glucose storage as glycogen is called glycogenesis.
– Glycogen serves as a readily available energy reserve.

Fructose is a different type of sugar. Glucose is the circulating form of sugar in the blood, used for immediate energy. Starch is the primary storage form of glucose in plants, not in animals or humans.