UPSC CAPF Archives

31. Which one of the following statements best describes the term ‘Green

Which one of the following statements best describes the term ‘Green Bonds’?

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They are bonds issued by governments to fund environmental projects.

They are bonds issued by corporations to fund green initiatives.

They are bonds issued to finance projects that have environmental benefits.

They are bonds issued to finance renewable energy projects only.

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2010

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Option C best describes the term ‘Green Bonds’.

– Green Bonds are a type of bond specifically earmarked to raise money for climate and environmental projects.
– They can be issued by various entities, including governments (sovereign, state, municipal), intergovernmental organizations, and corporations. Options A and B are partially correct by mentioning specific issuers but are not comprehensive.
– The crucial characteristic of a green bond is that the proceeds are used to finance projects with environmental benefits. These projects can include renewable energy, energy efficiency, sustainable waste management, sustainable land use, biodiversity conservation, clean transportation, sustainable water management, climate change adaptation, etc. Option D is too restrictive by limiting it only to renewable energy projects.
– Option C provides the most accurate and broad description of what a green bond is used for.

The green bond market follows guidelines developed by organizations like the International Capital Market Association (ICMA), such as the Green Bond Principles, which recommend the use of proceeds, project evaluation, management of proceeds, and reporting.

32. Consider the following statements: 1. The Minimum Support Price (MS

Consider the following statements:

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1. The Minimum Support Price (MSP) for agricultural crops is determined by the Central Government.
2. The MSP is based on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
3. The MSP is mandatory for procurement of agricultural produce by the government agencies.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2010

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Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is incorrect.

– Statement 1: The Minimum Support Price (MSP) for various agricultural crops is fixed or determined by the Central Government, specifically by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA). This statement is correct.
– Statement 2: The CCEA fixes the MSP based on the recommendations provided by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP). This statement is correct.
– Statement 3: MSP is the price at which the government agencies, like FCI, procure certain crops from farmers. However, it is not legally mandatory for all government agencies or market participants to procure *all* agricultural produce at MSP. Procurement policies vary by crop and state, and the effectiveness of MSP as a floor price depends on the extent of procurement and market conditions. The statement “MSP is mandatory for procurement of agricultural produce by the government agencies” is too absolute and not entirely reflective of the ground reality or policy design for all crops under MSP. This statement is incorrect.

MSP is intended to protect farmers from price volatility and ensure a minimum profitable price. While government procurement at MSP is a key mechanism, it doesn’t cover all crops equally or ensure procurement of the entire marketable surplus for every farmer.

33. Consider the following statements: 1. The Lok Sabha has the power t

Consider the following statements:

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1. The Lok Sabha has the power to pass a vote of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers.
2. The Rajya Sabha has the power to pass a vote of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2010

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Statement 1 is correct, while statement 2 is incorrect.

– Statement 1: The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha) as per Article 75(3) of the Constitution. Therefore, the Lok Sabha has the power to express lack of confidence in the government by passing a vote of no-confidence. If the motion is passed, the Council of Ministers must resign. This statement is correct.
– Statement 2: The Rajya Sabha does not have the power to pass a vote of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers. While the Rajya Sabha can discuss government policies and criticise the government, it cannot remove the government from power through a no-confidence motion. This statement is incorrect.

A no-confidence motion can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha. It requires the support of at least 50 members to be admitted. If passed by a majority of the members present and voting, the government falls.

34. Consider the following statements: 1. The Finance Commission is est

Consider the following statements:

1. The Finance Commission is established under Article 280 of the Constitution of India.
2. The Finance Commission makes recommendations on the distribution of tax revenues between the Union and the States.
3. The Finance Commission is a statutory body.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2010

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Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is incorrect.

– Statement 1: The Finance Commission is constituted under Article 280 of the Constitution of India by the President. This statement is correct.
– Statement 2: One of the primary functions of the Finance Commission is to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States (vertical devolution) and among the States themselves (horizontal devolution). This statement is correct.
– Statement 3: The Finance Commission is a constitutional body because it is established directly by the Constitution under Article 280. A statutory body is created by an Act of Parliament or a State Legislature. This statement is incorrect.

The Finance Commission is constituted every five years or earlier as deemed necessary by the President. Its recommendations cover the division of taxes, principles governing grants-in-aid to states, and measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement resources of Panchayats and Municipalities.

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35. Consider the following statements: 1. The National Programme for Co

Consider the following statements:

1. The National Programme for Control of Blindness is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme.
2. The target of the National Programme for Control of Blindness is to reduce the prevalence of blindness to 0.3% by 2020.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2010

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Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

– Statement 1: The National Programme for Control of Blindness and Visual Impairment (NPCB&VI), launched in 1976, is indeed a Centrally Sponsored Scheme, receiving financial assistance from the Central Government shared with State/UT governments. This statement is correct.
– Statement 2: The National Health Policy 2017 aimed to reduce the prevalence of blindness to 0.25% by 2025 from 1% in 2015. However, an earlier or commonly cited target, especially around previous policy iterations or program goals, was to reduce the prevalence to 0.3% by 2020. Given the options, and assuming this reflects a specific target at some point, this statement is considered correct in the context of the question. Prevalence of blindness was targeted for significant reduction, and 0.3% was a target figure associated with the program’s goals around the 2020 timeline in previous policies/reports.

The NPCB&VI’s activities include developing eye-care infrastructure, providing services like cataract surgery, distributing free spectacles to children, manpower development, and public awareness campaigns. The targets for prevalence reduction have been updated with subsequent policies.

36. Consider the following statements: 1. The Government of India provi

Consider the following statements:

1. The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price (MSP) for some crops.
2. The MSP is declared by the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
3. The MSP is fixed by the Government of India on the basis of the recommendations of the CACP.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2010

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Statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect.

– Statement 1: The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price (MSP) for a number of crops (currently 22 mandated crops and Sugarcane’s Fair and Remunerative Price). This statement is correct.
– Statement 2: The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) recommends the MSP. The MSP is *declared* or *announced* by the Government of India. This statement is incorrect.
– Statement 3: The MSP is fixed by the Government of India on the basis of the recommendations made by the CACP. The CACP submits its reports and recommendations to the government, and the final decision on MSP levels is taken by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA). This statement is correct.

The CACP is an attached office of the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare. It provides recommendations on MSPs based on various factors like cost of production, demand-supply situation, market price trends, inter-crop price parity, etc.

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37. Which one of the following statements best describes the role of ‘Inte

Which one of the following statements best describes the role of ‘Intermediate Range Ballistic Missiles’ (IRBMs)?

They are designed to carry conventional warheads only.

They have a range between 1000 km and 5500 km.

They are used for tactical purposes against enemy forces.

They are usually launched from submarines.

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2010

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Option B best describes the range of ‘Intermediate Range Ballistic Missiles’ (IRBMs).

– Ballistic missiles are classified based on their range. Standard classifications often use ranges like Short-Range (SRBM, typically < 1000 km), Medium-Range (MRBM, typically 1000-3000 km), Intermediate-Range (IRBM, typically 3000-5500 km), and Intercontinental (ICBM, > 5500 km).
– While the strict IRBM range is often cited as 3000-5500 km, option B provides a range (1000 km to 5500 km) that encompasses both MRBM and IRBM, and in a multiple-choice format, this is the most appropriate answer defining ‘intermediate range’ broadly, especially when other options are clearly incorrect.
– Option A is incorrect; IRBMs can carry both conventional and nuclear warheads.
– Option C is incorrect; IRBMs are typically used for strategic strikes against distant targets, not tactical purposes.
– Option D is incorrect; IRBMs are predominantly ground-launched, unlike SLBMs (Submarine-Launched Ballistic Missiles).

Missile range classifications can vary slightly depending on the source or treaty definition (e.g., the defunct INF Treaty used 500 to 5,500 km for ground-launched ballistic and cruise missiles). However, the 1000-5500 km range in option B covers the typical operational ranges considered ‘intermediate’ or combining ‘medium’ and ‘intermediate’ ranges in a general classification.

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38. Which one of the following best describes the term ‘Integrated Farming

Which one of the following best describes the term ‘Integrated Farming System’ ?

It is a system of agriculture where multiple crops are grown simultaneously on the same field.

It is a system of farming where livestock is integrated with crop production.

It is a system of farming that combines traditional farming practices with modern technology.

It is a farming system that utilizes resources in a cyclical manner to improve sustainability.

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2010

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Option D is the best description of the term ‘Integrated Farming System’.

– An Integrated Farming System (IFS) is a holistic approach that combines multiple compatible farm enterprises such as crops, livestock, poultry, fishery, forestry, etc., within the farm.
– The primary objective of IFS is to utilize resources efficiently, minimize waste by recycling it as input for other components, and thereby improve the productivity and sustainability of the farm.
– Option A describes intercropping or mixed cropping. Option B describes a common form of integration within IFS, but not the system’s overarching principle. Option C relates to modern or sustainable agriculture practices.
– Option D accurately captures the core principle of IFS, which revolves around cyclical resource flow and improving overall sustainability and efficiency.

IFS aims to provide stable income, reduce reliance on external inputs, generate employment, and enhance biodiversity on the farm. Examples include using livestock manure as fertilizer for crops, crop residues as feed for livestock, or integrating fish farming with crop irrigation.

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39. Consider the following statements: 1. The Parliament of India is th

Consider the following statements:

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1. The Parliament of India is the sole authority to amend the Constitution of India.
2. A Bill for the amendment of the Constitution can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
3. The President of India must give his assent to a Bill for the amendment of the Constitution.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2010

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Statement 1 is correct if interpreted as Parliament being the sole legislative body involved in the amendment process. Article 368 vests the power to amend the Constitution in Parliament. Although some amendments require ratification by state legislatures, the bill is passed by Parliament. Statement 2 is incorrect. A Bill for the amendment of the Constitution can be introduced in either House of Parliament (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha), not only in the Lok Sabha (Article 368(2)). Statement 3 is correct. Article 368(2), as amended by the 24th Amendment Act, 1971, makes it obligatory for the President to give his assent to a Constitution Amendment Bill passed by Parliament (and ratified by states, where necessary).

Constitutional amendment bills can originate in either House of Parliament and require mandatory assent from the President. While Parliament is the primary legislative body for amendments, federal amendments require state ratification, meaning Parliament is not the *sole* authority in the sense of excluding states entirely from the process for certain amendments. However, given the options, interpreting statement 1 as Parliament being the sole *legislative* authority is the most plausible way to arrive at a valid option.

Constitutional amendments are governed by Article 368. There are different procedures for amendment, requiring either a special majority of Parliament, or a special majority of Parliament plus ratification by half of the state legislatures.

40. Consider the following statements: 1. Under the Indian Constitution

Consider the following statements:

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1. Under the Indian Constitution, the President is bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers.
2. Under the Indian Constitution, the President is bound by the advice of the Cabinet.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2010

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Statement 1 is correct. Article 74(1) of the Constitution states that there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President, who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice. The 42nd Amendment made this advice binding, and the 44th Amendment allowed the President to ask the CoM to reconsider the advice, but the President is bound by the reconsidered advice. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Constitution specifically mentions the ‘Council of Ministers’ in relation to advising the President (Articles 74, 75, 78). While the Cabinet is the inner circle and the actual decision-making body within the CoM, the constitutional term is Council of Ministers.

The President of India acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, as mandated by the Constitution. The term ‘Cabinet’ is not used in this context in the specific constitutional articles related to the President’s exercise of power based on advice.

The Council of Ministers comprises all ministers, including Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State, and Deputy Ministers. The Cabinet consists only of the Cabinet Ministers. While the Cabinet is the driving force behind government policy and decisions, the Council of Ministers is the larger constitutional body whose advice is binding on the President.