UPSC CAPF

31. Which one among the following statements regarding SAARC is correct ?

Which one among the following statements regarding SAARC is correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Myanmar is a member of SAARC” option2=”Headquarters of SAARC is located in Dhaka” option3=”The first SAARC award was posthumously conferred upon late President Ziaur Rahman of Bangladesh” option4=”The present Secretary General of SAARC is from India” correct=”option3″]

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UPSC CAPF – 2011
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Statement C is correct. The first SAARC Award was posthumously conferred upon late President Ziaur Rahman of Bangladesh (one of the proponents of SAARC) for his vision and contribution to the idea of regional cooperation in South Asia.
The SAARC Award is conferred to individuals or organizations for their outstanding contribution to the cause of peace, development, poverty alleviation, and regional cooperation in South Asia.
Statement A is incorrect; Myanmar is not a member of SAARC. Statement B is incorrect; the SAARC Secretariat is located in Kathmandu, Nepal, although the first summit was held in Dhaka. Statement D is incorrect; the Secretary General of SAARC is appointed by the Council of Ministers on the principle of rotation among the Member States in alphabetical order and serves for a term of three years. While there have been Indian Secretaries General in the past, the statement refers to the “present” which is relative to the time of the question and also typically implies the current office holder. However, even looking at historical SGs around the likely time of this question’s origin (early 2010s), the SG was from Nepal (2011-2014). Regardless, C is a definitively correct historical fact about the SAARC award.

32. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

List I
(Prominent American Indian)		 List II
(Field of activity)
A. Piyush ‘Bobby’ Jindal 1. Media
B. Manoj Night Shyamalan 2. Author
C. Siddhartha Mukherjee 3. Film Maker
D. Fareed Zakaria 4. Administration

Code :

[amp_mcq option1=”A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1″ option2=”A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1″ option3=”A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4″ option4=”A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4″ correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2011
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Matching the prominent American Indians (of Indian origin) with their fields of activity:
A. Piyush ‘Bobby’ Jindal – 4. Administration (He is a former Governor of Louisiana and a former US Congressman).
B. Manoj Night Shyamalan – 3. Film Maker (He is a renowned film director, screenwriter, and producer).
C. Siddhartha Mukherjee – 2. Author (He is a physician, scientist, and Pulitzer Prize-winning author).
D. Fareed Zakaria – 1. Media (He is a journalist, author, and host of CNN’s Fareed Zakaria GPS).
The correct code is therefore A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1.
This question tests knowledge of prominent personalities of Indian origin who have made significant contributions in various fields in the United States.
All individuals listed are well-known figures in their respective domains in the United States. This question highlights the increasing presence and influence of the Indian diaspora globally.

33. Which of the following statements regarding United Nations Environment

Which of the following statements regarding United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) is/are correct ?

  • 1. The theme for the year 2011 is ‘Forest : Nature at Your Service’.
  • 2. It underscores link between quality of life and health and forest ecosystem.
  • 3. India is declared as a global host of World Environment Day 2011.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1, 2 and 3″ option2=”1 only” option3=”2 and 3 only” option4=”1 and 2 only” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2011
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All three statements are correct regarding the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and World Environment Day (WED) in 2011. The theme for World Environment Day 2011 was ‘Forests: Nature at Your Service’, which highlights the vital ecosystem services provided by forests and their link to human well-being (Statements 1 and 2). India was indeed the global host country for World Environment Day 2011, organizing various events to mark the occasion (Statement 3).
World Environment Day is celebrated annually on June 5th and is the principal vehicle for the United Nations to encourage worldwide awareness and action for the protection of our environment. Each year, a theme and a host country are selected.
UNEP was established in 1972 and is the leading global environmental authority that sets the global environmental agenda, promotes the coherent implementation of the environmental dimension of sustainable development within the United Nations system, and serves as an authoritative advocate for the global environment.

34. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

List I
(River)		 List II
(Tributary)
A. Godavari 1. Son
B. Krishna 2. Chambal
C. Yamuna 3. Bhima
D. Ganga 4. Manjira

Code :

[amp_mcq option1=”A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1″ option2=”A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1″ option3=”A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4″ option4=”A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4″ correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2011
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The correct matches are:
A. Godavari – 4. Manjira (Manjira is a major tributary of the Godavari)
B. Krishna – 3. Bhima (Bhima is a major tributary of the Krishna)
C. Yamuna – 2. Chambal (Chambal is a major tributary of the Yamuna)
D. Ganga – 1. Son (Son is a major southern tributary of the Ganga)
Therefore, the correct code is A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1.
Identifying major tributaries of India’s principal rivers is crucial for understanding the country’s drainage system and geography.
Other important tributaries: Godavari: Pravara, Purna, Pranhita (Penganga, Wardha, Wainganga), Indravati, Sabari. Krishna: Tungabhadra, Koyna, Ghataprabha, Malaprabha, Musi. Yamuna: Sindh, Betwa, Ken. Ganga: Yamuna, Ghagra, Gandak, Kosi, Ramganga, Gomti, Damodar.

35. Which of the following statements relating to the planet Venus is/are

Which of the following statements relating to the planet Venus is/are correct ?

  • 1. It is the nearest planet from the Sun.
  • 2. It is only slightly smaller than the Earth.
  • 3. It has no atmosphere.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1, 2 and 3″ option2=”1 and 3 only” option3=”2 only” option4=”1 and 2 only” correct=”option3″]

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Statement 2 is correct: Venus is often called Earth’s sister planet because it is only slightly smaller than Earth in size (diameter of Venus is about 12,104 km compared to Earth’s 12,742 km) and mass.
Venus is the second planet from the Sun and has a dense, toxic atmosphere primarily composed of carbon dioxide.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Mercury is the nearest planet to the Sun, followed by Venus, Earth, Mars, etc. Statement 3 is incorrect: Venus has a very thick atmosphere, about 90 times denser than Earth’s atmosphere, leading to extremely high surface temperatures due to a runaway greenhouse effect.

36. Which one among the following forces is most powerful in determining m

Which one among the following forces is most powerful in determining movement of wind including its velocity ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Gravitational force” option2=”Centrifugal force” option3=”Frictional force” option4=”Pressure gradient force” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2011
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The Pressure Gradient Force (PGF) is the primary force that initiates air movement, i.e., wind. It is the force that pushes air from areas of high pressure to areas of low pressure. The strength of the wind is directly proportional to the magnitude of the pressure gradient (the rate of pressure change over distance).
Pressure gradient force is fundamental to atmospheric circulation. Air flows from high pressure to low pressure, and this movement constitutes wind. Other forces like Coriolis force and friction modify the direction and speed of the wind, but PGF is the initial driver.
While other forces influence wind, their roles are different: Gravitational force keeps the atmosphere bound to the Earth. Centrifugal force is relevant in curved motion but not the primary cause of wind. Frictional force acts opposite to the direction of motion, slowing down the wind, especially near the surface.

37. Which one among the following statements relating to a cyclone is not

Which one among the following statements relating to a cyclone is not correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”It is a wind circulation system with a low pressure at the centre” option2=”It brings about sudden change in weather condition in an area” option3=”Wind movement towards the low pressure centre of a cyclone is clockwise in the northern hemisphere” option4=”It is known as hurricane in West Indies” correct=”option3″]

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Statement C is incorrect. In the Northern Hemisphere, due to the Coriolis effect, winds in a cyclone (a low-pressure system) spiral *counter-clockwise* towards the centre. In the Southern Hemisphere, they spiral clockwise.
The Coriolis effect, caused by the Earth’s rotation, is responsible for the deflection of moving air (and water). This effect dictates the direction of rotation of large-scale weather systems like cyclones and anti-cyclones in different hemispheres.
A cyclone is indeed a low-pressure wind circulation system (Statement A). Cyclones bring about significant and often sudden changes in weather, including strong winds, heavy rain, and sometimes storm surges (Statement B). Cyclones are known by various names globally depending on the region, such as hurricanes in the Atlantic and Northeast Pacific, typhoons in the Northwest Pacific, and willy-willies off the coast of Northwestern Australia (Statement D).

38. Statement I : India used the Minimum Credible Deterrent argument to de

Statement I : India used the Minimum Credible Deterrent argument to develop its nuclear weapon system arguing that it had such a threat from China. Pakistan in turn used the same argument against India when it developed its own nuclear weapons.
Statement II : The Minimum Credible Deterrent refers to a notion according to which nuclear weapons become necessary for a country when it has a clear nuclear threat.

[amp_mcq option1=”Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I” option2=”Both the statements are individually true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I” option3=”Statement I is true but statement II is false” option4=”Statement I is false but statement II is true” correct=”option1″]

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Both Statement I and Statement II are individually true, and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I. Statement I describes the historical application of the Minimum Credible Deterrent argument by India and Pakistan in the context of their nuclear weapons programs. Statement II provides a definition of the Minimum Credible Deterrent, explaining that nuclear weapons become necessary for a country when it faces a clear nuclear threat. This definition precisely explains *why* India and Pakistan would employ such an argument – they perceived nuclear threats (India from China, Pakistan from India) and therefore argued that a nuclear capability was necessary as a deterrent.
Minimum Credible Deterrent is a strategic posture where a state possesses just enough nuclear capability to deter an attack, particularly a nuclear attack, by threatening unacceptable retaliation. It emphasizes the ‘minimum’ requirement to deter, rather than seeking nuclear superiority or parity in numbers.
India officially adopted the policy of ‘Minimum Credible Deterrence’ after its 1998 nuclear tests, alongside a ‘No First Use’ policy. Pakistan has not adopted a ‘No First Use’ policy and its doctrine is often described as ‘Full Spectrum Deterrence’, though it also maintains a nuclear arsenal aimed at deterring India.

39. Statement I : The Earth is shaped more like a tangerine. Statement II

Statement I : The Earth is shaped more like a tangerine.
Statement II : The Earth spins faster at the Poles.

[amp_mcq option1=”Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I” option2=”Both the statements are individually true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I” option3=”Statement I is true but statement II is false” option4=”Statement I is false but statement II is true” correct=”option3″]

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Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
The Earth’s shape is an oblate spheroid, and its rotation speed is greatest at the equator.
Statement I is true; the Earth is not a perfect sphere but is slightly flattened at the poles and bulges at the equator due to centrifugal force from its rotation, a shape often approximated by calling it an oblate spheroid or using the analogy of a tangerine or orange. Statement II is false; the Earth spins at a constant *angular* velocity (completing one rotation in roughly 24 hours), but the *linear* velocity (speed along the surface) is highest at the equator because points on the equator are farthest from the axis of rotation. The linear velocity decreases towards the poles and is essentially zero at the geographical poles which lie on the axis of rotation.

40. Statement I : In forensic investigations, DNA fingerprinting tests are

Statement I : In forensic investigations, DNA fingerprinting tests are carried out.
Statement II : In DNA fingerprinting technique, DNA is isolated and subjected to Northern Blotting.

[amp_mcq option1=”Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I” option2=”Both the statements are individually true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I” option3=”Statement I is true but statement II is false” option4=”Statement I is false but statement II is true” correct=”option3″]

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Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
DNA fingerprinting is a valid forensic technique, but the method of analysis involves DNA-specific techniques, not RNA analysis methods.
Statement I is true; DNA fingerprinting (or profiling) is widely used in forensic investigations for identification purposes, such as matching samples from a crime scene to a suspect. Statement II is false; Northern Blotting is a technique used to detect specific sequences of *RNA*. DNA fingerprinting techniques involve analyzing DNA, using methods such as Southern Blotting (historically) or more commonly PCR amplification of variable regions (like STRs) followed by electrophoresis or sequencing.
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