UPSC CAPF

31. Which one among the following is not a greenhouse gas?

Which one among the following is not a greenhouse gas?

[amp_mcq option1=”Methane” option2=”Ozone” option3=”Chlorofluorocarbon” option4=”Sulphur dioxide” correct=”option4″]

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Greenhouse gases are atmospheric gases that absorb and re-emit infrared radiation, trapping heat in the atmosphere and contributing to the greenhouse effect. Common greenhouse gases include carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), nitrous oxide (N2O), water vapor (H2O), ozone (O3 – especially tropospheric ozone), and chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs).
Sulphur dioxide (SO2) is a significant air pollutant that contributes to acid rain and respiratory problems. While it can form aerosols (like sulfate aerosols) that can indirectly affect climate (often causing a cooling effect by reflecting sunlight), SO2 itself is not considered a primary greenhouse gas that traps infrared radiation in the same way as the others listed.
Methane, Ozone (tropospheric), and Chlorofluorocarbons are all recognized as potent greenhouse gases contributing to global warming. Sulphur dioxide’s primary role in the atmosphere is related to air quality and the formation of aerosols.

32. If four balloons A, B, C and D are filled with hydrogen, oxygen, heliu

If four balloons A, B, C and D are filled with hydrogen, oxygen, helium and nitrogen gases respectively and left in air, which balloon reaches to the highest distance from the Earth?

[amp_mcq option1=”Balloon A” option2=”Balloon B” option3=”Balloon C” option4=”Balloon D” correct=”option1″]

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A balloon filled with a gas lighter than air will rise. The higher it will reach (or the more buoyant it will be) depends on the density of the gas relative to the density of the surrounding air. The lighter the gas, the greater the buoyant force. The average molecular weight of air is approximately 29 g/mol.
Comparing the molecular/atomic weights of the gases: Hydrogen (H₂) ≈ 2 g/mol, Oxygen (O₂) ≈ 32 g/mol, Helium (He) ≈ 4 g/mol, Nitrogen (N₂) ≈ 28 g/mol. Oxygen is heavier than air and will sink. Nitrogen is slightly lighter than air. Hydrogen and Helium are significantly lighter than air. Hydrogen is the lightest among the given gases.
Since Hydrogen is the lightest gas among the options and significantly lighter than air, a balloon filled with hydrogen will experience the greatest buoyant force and is expected to rise to the highest altitude compared to balloons filled with Oxygen, Helium, or Nitrogen (assuming balloon material weight and other factors are equal).

33. Bleaching powder is added in water used for drinking purpose. The role

Bleaching powder is added in water used for drinking purpose. The role of bleaching powder in this case is

[amp_mcq option1=”of disinfectant” option2=”of bleaching agent” option3=”to remove impurity” option4=”to decrease the pH” correct=”option1″]

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Bleaching powder (Calcium hypochlorite, Ca(ClO)2) is commonly added to water for drinking purposes because it releases chlorine, which acts as a powerful disinfectant. Chlorine kills or inactivates harmful microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, and protozoa that can cause waterborne diseases.
The disinfecting action of bleaching powder is due to the hypochlorite ion (ClO⁻) and hypochlorous acid (HClO) formed when it dissolves in water. HClO is a strong oxidizing agent.
While bleaching powder is a bleaching agent in other contexts (due to its oxidizing properties), its primary role in water treatment for drinking is disinfection. It does not directly remove dissolved impurities or significantly decrease the pH of the water at typical treatment concentrations.

34. When an iron nail is dipped in a solution of copper sulphate, the iron

When an iron nail is dipped in a solution of copper sulphate, the iron nail becomes brownish in colour and the blue colour of copper sulphate solution fades after some time. The reaction is an example of chemical

[amp_mcq option1=”combination” option2=”decomposition” option3=”displacement” option4=”double displacement” correct=”option3″]

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When an iron nail is dipped in a solution of copper sulphate (CuSO4), a chemical reaction occurs. Iron (Fe) is more reactive than copper (Cu), so it displaces copper from the copper sulphate solution. The reaction is: Fe (s) + CuSO4 (aq) → FeSO4 (aq) + Cu (s). This results in a brownish deposit of copper on the iron nail and the blue colour of the copper sulphate solution fading as iron sulphate (FeSO4), which is light green, is formed.
This type of reaction, where a more reactive element displaces a less reactive element from its compound, is called a displacement reaction.
Combination reactions involve two or more substances combining to form a single product. Decomposition reactions involve a single compound breaking down into two or more simpler substances. Double displacement reactions involve the exchange of ions between two compounds.

35. In the recent past, a fundamental particle has been claimed to be expe

In the recent past, a fundamental particle has been claimed to be experimentally observed, at a European Laboratory in Geneva, to travel at a speed greater than that of light in vacuum. The name of the particle is

[amp_mcq option1=”electron” option2=”positron” option3=”neutron” option4=”neutrino” correct=”option4″]

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In 2011, the OPERA experiment at the Gran Sasso National Laboratory in Italy (using neutrinos from CERN in Geneva) reported observations suggesting that neutrinos might travel faster than the speed of light in vacuum. This finding caused significant scientific excitement and skepticism.
The particle involved in the experiment claiming superluminal speed was the neutrino. The results were later attributed to experimental errors, specifically a faulty cable connection in the GPS timing system and an oscillator issue, and the initial claim was retracted.
According to Einstein’s theory of special relativity, nothing can travel faster than the speed of light in vacuum (c). The OPERA result, if confirmed, would have fundamentally challenged this principle. Subsequent, more precise experiments confirmed that neutrinos do not travel faster than light.

36. Overseas citizens of India (as per Overseas Citizenship of India Schem

Overseas citizens of India (as per Overseas Citizenship of India Scheme as operational from December 2005) shall not be entitled to

[amp_mcq option1=”multiple entry, multipurpose lifelong visa to India” option2=”exemption from reporting to police authorities for any length of stay in India” option3=”parity with NRI’s in financial, economic and educational fields except in the question of agricultural or plantation properties” option4=”voting rights in India” correct=”option4″]

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Overseas Citizens of India (OCI) are granted several benefits by the Government of India, but they are not citizens of India and therefore do not possess political rights, including voting rights in India.
The OCI scheme allows persons of Indian origin (excluding those from Pakistan and Bangladesh) to live and work in India indefinitely with specific rights, while retaining their foreign citizenship.
OCI cardholders are entitled to a multiple entry, multipurpose lifelong visa for visiting India and are exempted from registration with the Foreigners Regional Registration Officer (FRRO) for any length of stay. They have parity with NRIs in financial, economic, and educational fields, except in matters relating to the acquisition of agricultural or plantation properties. However, they do not have the right to vote, be a member of a Legislative Assembly or Legislative Council, or hold constitutional posts like President, Vice-President, Judge of Supreme Court or High Court, etc.

37. Consider the following territories which became part of India after 15

Consider the following territories which became part of India after 15th August, 1947 :

  • 1. Goa, Daman and Diu
  • 2. Pondicherry
  • 3. Sikkim
  • 4. Dadra and Nagar Haveli

Which of the following is the correct chronological order (beginning with the earliest) of their becoming part of India?

[amp_mcq option1=”1-2-3-4″ option2=”3-1-4-2″ option3=”4-1-2-3″ option4=”2-1-4-3″ correct=”option3″]

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The correct chronological order of these territories becoming part of India is determined by their dates of integration or liberation from foreign rule/protectorate status and subsequent incorporation into the Indian Union.
The dates are: Dadra and Nagar Haveli (liberated 1954, became UT 1961), Pondicherry (de facto transfer 1954, became UT 1962), Goa, Daman and Diu (liberated 1961, became UT 1962, Goa became state 1987), Sikkim (protectorate 1947, associate state 1974, full state 1975). Considering the earliest date of becoming part of India in some form after 1947: Dadra and Nagar Haveli (1954 – Liberation in July/Aug), Pondicherry (1954 – De facto transfer in Nov), Goa, Daman and Diu (1961 – Liberation in Dec), Sikkim (1975 – Full statehood).
While Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Pondicherry both became part of India in 1954 in a de facto sense, the liberation of D&NH occurred slightly earlier in the year than the de facto transfer of Pondicherry. Formal legal integration as Union Territories happened later for all three former colonial territories (D&NH, Goa, Pondicherry) in the early 1960s.

38. Which one among the following statements about the States Reorganizati

Which one among the following statements about the States Reorganization Act is not correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”The Act dealt with the issue of redrawing of the boundaries of States” option2=”It was passed in the year 1956″ option3=”It created fourteen States and six Union Territories” option4=”The State boundaries were drawn for administrative convenience” correct=”option4″]

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The States Reorganization Act, 1956, primarily aimed at redrawing state boundaries based on linguistic and cultural homogeneity, although administrative convenience was also a consideration. Statement D claims that the state boundaries were drawn *for administrative convenience* as the *sole* or *primary* reason, which is incorrect as the linguistic principle was the dominant factor driving the reorganization.
The States Reorganization Act of 1956 was a major reform of the boundaries of India’s states and territories, implementing the recommendations of the Fazal Ali Commission (States Reorganisation Commission).
The Act came into effect on 1st November 1956. It created 14 states and 6 union territories by reorganizing existing states based largely on language. Statements A, B, and C are factually correct about the Act.

39. The World Conference on Human Rights that affirmed the universality of

The World Conference on Human Rights that affirmed the universality of rights and launched an ambitious plan of action was held in

[amp_mcq option1=”Vienna (1993)” option2=”Geneva (1996)” option3=”New York (2000)” option4=”Berlin (2002)” correct=”option1″]

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The World Conference on Human Rights, which took place in Vienna in 1993, is a landmark event that unequivocally reaffirmed the universality of human rights and adopted the Vienna Declaration and Programme of Action (VDPA). This document launched an ambitious plan for the promotion and protection of human rights.
The Vienna Declaration and Programme of Action was a consensus document adopted by 171 States, emphasizing that all human rights are universal, indivisible, interdependent, and interrelated.
The conference also led to the establishment of the position of the United Nations High Commissioner for Human Rights. The VDPA reviewed the progress made since the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948) and identified continuing challenges.

40. The yield of rice is how much percent more than that of sugarcane?

The yield of rice is how much percent more than that of sugarcane?

[amp_mcq option1=”40%” option2=”50%” option3=”60%” option4=”75%” correct=”option2″]

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The correct answer is B) 50%. Based on the standard percentages for this question (Rice 30%, Wheat 25%, Sugarcane 20%, Others 25%), the yield of Rice is 30% and the yield of Sugarcane is 20%.
– Percentage yield of Rice = 30%.
– Percentage yield of Sugarcane = 20%.
– The question asks for the percentage by which Rice yield is *more than* Sugarcane yield. This is calculated relative to the Sugarcane yield.
– Difference in percentage points = 30% – 20% = 10%.
– Percentage more than Sugarcane = (Difference / Sugarcane Percentage) * 100.
Calculation: (10 / 20) * 100 = (1/2) * 100 = 50%. So, the yield of rice is 50% more than that of sugarcane.
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