UPSC CAPF Archives

31. “Mission Shakti” (DRDO) is the name given by India to

“Mission Shakti” (DRDO) is the name given by India to

[amp_mcq option1=”Inter-Continental Ballistic Missile” option2=”Air-to-Air Missile” option3=”Anti-Satellite Missile” option4=”Nuclear-Powered Attack Sub-marine” correct=”option3″]

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UPSC CAPF – 2024

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“Mission Shakti” was the codename for India’s anti-satellite (ASAT) missile test conducted on March 27, 2019. In this test, India successfully destroyed a live satellite in low Earth orbit (LEO) using a missile, demonstrating its capability in space warfare and technology.

Mission Shakti was India’s first successful anti-satellite missile test, positioning India as the fourth country (after the US, Russia, and China) to possess this capability.

The test was conducted by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and was announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi. It was hailed as a major technological achievement and a boost to India’s security preparedness in space.

32. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The abolition

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The abolition of the Official Secrets Act, 1923 was recommended by the Second Administrative Reforms Commission
2. The Right to Information Act was enacted in 2005

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option3″]

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Statement 1 is correct: The Second Administrative Reforms Commission (2nd ARC), in its First Report titled “Right to Information: Master Key to Good Governance,” recommended the repeal of the Official Secrets Act, 1923 and its replacement by a chapter in the National Security Act, retaining only provisions related to espionage. While not complete abolition without replacement, this is correctly interpreted as recommending its removal in its current form.
Statement 2 is correct: The Right to Information Act received presidential assent on 15 June 2005 and came into full force on 12 October 2005. Thus, it was enacted in 2005.
Since both statements are correct, option C is the correct answer.

The 2nd ARC strongly advocated for transparency and recommended changing the Official Secrets Act to align with the spirit of the Right to Information. The RTI Act is a landmark legislation enacted in 2005 to promote transparency and accountability in government functioning.

The Official Secrets Act, 1923 is a colonial-era law that has often been criticized for being a hindrance to transparency. The 2nd ARC’s recommendation aimed to balance national security concerns with the public’s right to information.

33. Under which one among the following Articles of the Constitution of In

Under which one among the following Articles of the Constitution of India, the seats are reserved for the Scheduled Caste and the Scheduled Tribe in every Municipality ?

[amp_mcq option1=”243-R” option2=”243-S” option3=”243-T” option4=”243-ZA” correct=”option3″]

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Part IXA of the Constitution of India deals with Municipalities. Article 243T, titled “Reservation of seats,” mandates the reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in every Municipality, in proportion to their population in the municipal area. It also provides for reservation of seats for women.

Article 243T of the Constitution specifically provides for reservation of seats for SCs, STs, and women in Municipalities. This mirrors the reservation provision for Panchayats in Article 243D.

Article 243R deals with the composition of Municipalities. Article 243S deals with the constitution and composition of Wards Committees. Article 243ZA deals with elections to the Municipalities and vests the superintendence, direction, and control of the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all elections to the Municipalities in the State Election Commission.

34. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List I (Commission/Committee)	List II (Suggested Reform in Civil Services Examination)
A. Kothari Commission	1. Inclusion of Medical and Engineering subjects
B. Satish Chandra Committee	2. Entrance Examination for Civil Service after Class XII
C. P. C. Hota Committee	3. Objective methodology for personality assessment
D. Prof. Y. K. Alagh Committee	4. Civil Services Mains examination (Written and Interview)

[amp_mcq option1=”4 1 2 3″ option2=”4 2 1 3″ option3=”3 1 2 4″ option4=”3 2 1 4″ correct=”option2″]

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UPSC CAPF – 2024

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Based on the provided options and common associations, the pairings are as follows:
A. Kothari Commission -> 4. Civil Services Mains examination (Written and Interview)
B. Satish Chandra Committee -> 2. Entrance Examination for Civil Service after Class XII
C. P. C. Hota Committee -> 1. Inclusion of Medical and Engineering subjects
D. Prof. Y. K. Alagh Committee -> 3. Objective methodology for personality assessment
Option B lists the pairings 4 2 1 3.

The Kothari Commission (1976) is well-known for recommending the three-stage structure of the Civil Services Examination: Preliminary, Main (written and interview). Thus, A-4 is a correct and prominent association. The other pairings (B-2, C-1, D-3) presented in Option B are less conventionally associated with these committees based on their primary recommendations, and B-2 (Satish Chandra – Entrance after Class XII) is particularly questionable as a recommendation of the Satish Chandra Committee.

The Satish Chandra Committee (2011 & 2013) primarily reviewed the Civil Services Examination pattern, leading to changes like the introduction of CSAT in Prelims, restructuring of the Mains syllabus (e.g., adding ethics paper), and changes in interview marks. The P.C. Hota Committee (2004) made recommendations on various aspects of civil service reforms including recruitment, training, and ethics, suggesting ways to improve the selection process including interview objectivity. The Y.K. Alagh Committee (2001) reviewed the Preliminary Examination syllabus. The pairing A-4 is widely accepted, while the other pairings in option B are less standard and may reflect specific, less prominent recommendations or a particular interpretation by the question setter.

35. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. Some Rights co

Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

1. Some Rights contained in Part-III of the Constitution of India are enforceable against the State only
2. Some Rights contained in Part-III of the Constitution of India are enforceable in favor of citizens only
3. Some Rights contained in Part-III of the Constitution of India are enforceable against both, the state and individuals

Select the answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”1 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option4″]

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Statement 1 is correct: Some rights like those under Articles 14, 16, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22, 25, 26, 27, and 28 are primarily enforceable against the actions of the State.
Statement 2 is correct: Some rights, such as those under Articles 15, 16, 19, 29, and 30, are available only to citizens and thus enforceable in their favor.
Statement 3 is correct: Some rights, like those against untouchability (Article 17), prohibition of forced labour (Article 23), and prohibition of child labour (Article 24), as well as Article 15(2) regarding access to public places, are enforceable against both the State and private individuals.
Since all three statements are correct, option D is the correct answer.

Fundamental Rights in Part III of the Constitution have varying scopes of enforceability regarding the entities against whom they can be enforced (State, individuals) and the beneficiaries (citizens, persons).

The definition of ‘State’ under Article 12 is broad and includes the Government and Parliament of India, the Government and the Legislature of each of the States, and all local or other authorities within the territory of India or under the control of the Government of India. Judicial decisions have further expanded this definition.

36. Which of the following statements are correct about the composition of

Which of the following statements are correct about the composition of the G 20 ?

1. All G 7 countries are members of G 20
2. All BRICS countries are members of G 20
3. All ASEAN countries are members of G 20
4. All permanent members of Security Council are members of G 20

Select the answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1, 2 and 3″ option2=”2 and 4 only” option3=”1 and 4″ option4=”2, 3 and 4″ correct=”option3″]

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UPSC CAPF – 2024

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The correct option is C (1 and 4).

Let’s analyze each statement regarding the composition of the G20 (which includes 19 countries and the European Union):
1. All G7 countries are members of G20. The G7 countries are Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom, and the United States. All these seven countries are members of the G20. The European Union, also part of G7 discussions, is also a member of G20. Thus, statement 1 is correct.
2. All BRICS countries are members of G20. As of early 2024, BRICS includes Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa, Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates. While the original five BRICS members (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa) are all G20 members, the expanded group includes countries (Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran) that are not members of the G20. Therefore, assuming the question refers to the expanded BRICS (as is current from 2024), statement 2 is incorrect. (If referring to original BRICS, it would be correct, but options suggest expanded BRICS is likely intended).
3. All ASEAN countries are members of G20. ASEAN comprises 10 member states: Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, and Vietnam. Only Indonesia is a member of the G20. Thus, statement 3 is incorrect.
4. All permanent members of Security Council are members of G20. The five permanent members of the UN Security Council are China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States. All these five countries are members of the G20. Thus, statement 4 is correct.
Based on this analysis, statements 1 and 4 are correct, while statements 2 and 3 are incorrect (interpreting BRICS as the expanded group).

The G20 is a forum for international economic cooperation, bringing together the world’s major economies. Its members account for a significant portion of global GDP, trade, and population. The G7 is a group of advanced economies. BRICS is an association of major emerging national economies. ASEAN is a regional intergovernmental organization of ten Southeast Asian countries. The UN Security Council permanent members are the principal powers responsible for maintaining international peace and security within the UN framework. The overlap in membership across these groups reflects the complex web of global governance and economic relationships. The recent expansion of BRICS (effective Jan 2024) changes its composition and affects the truthfulness of statement 2 if the question is recent. Assuming a recent context, C (1 and 4) is the correct option.

37. Which one among the following reports states that the budget is seen,

Which one among the following reports states that the budget is seen, not as a simple balancing of tax receipts against expenditure but as a sophisticated process in which instruments of taxation and expenditure are used to influence the course of the Economy ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Administrative Reforms Committee Report” option2=”Hoover Commission Report” option3=”Haldane Committee Report” option4=”Plowden Report on Control of Expenditure” correct=”option4″]

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The correct option is D, Plowden Report on Control of Expenditure.

The statement describes the modern view of a budget as a tool of fiscal policy used to influence the overall economy, moving beyond its traditional role as a simple accounting exercise for government income and expenditure.
The Plowden Report (officially, the Report of the Committee on Control of Public Expenditure, published in 1961 in the UK) was a pivotal report that recommended significant reforms in public expenditure control. A key aspect of the Plowden Report was its emphasis on the need to consider public expenditure and the budget process within a longer-term perspective and its macroeconomic implications. The report stressed that decisions on public spending must be taken in the light of the overall economic prospects and available resources, recognizing the budget’s powerful impact on the economy.
Other reports listed:
A) Administrative Reforms Committee Report (India) – Multiple such committees existed, but generally focused on administrative structure and efficiency.
B) Hoover Commission Report (USA) – (e.g., 1947-49, 1953-55) Focused on reorganizing and improving the efficiency of the executive branch of the US government.
C) Haldane Committee Report (UK, 1918) – Recommended restructuring the machinery of UK government, emphasizing the importance of research and intelligence.
None of these other reports are as directly associated with the fundamental shift in viewing the budget as a tool for influencing the economy on a macroeconomic level as the Plowden Report.

The Plowden Report’s recommendations led to significant changes in the UK’s public expenditure management, introducing concepts like long-term planning of expenditure and its consideration in relation to the national economy. It contributed to embedding the idea that the budget is a powerful instrument for influencing economic conditions, reflecting the prevailing post-Keynesian economic thought at the time.

38. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. The Muddiman C

Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

1. The Muddiman Committee recommended the separation of Accounts from Audit as a necessary financial reform
2. Indian Institute of Public Administration was set up on the lines recommended by Dr. Paul H. Appleby

Select the answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option2″]

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The correct option is B (2 only).

Statement 1: The Muddiman Committee, also known as the Reforms Enquiry Committee, was appointed in 1924 to examine the working of the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms (Government of India Act, 1919), particularly the system of Dyarchy. Its report focused on constitutional and administrative issues arising from the implementation of these reforms. The separation of Accounts from Audit in India was a reform completed much later, in 1976, for central government accounts. This reform was recommended by various committees over time, including the Estimates Committee and the Administrative Reforms Commission, but not the Muddiman Committee. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 2: The Indian Institute of Public Administration (IIPA) was indeed set up in March 1954. Its establishment was a direct outcome of the recommendations made by Dr. Paul H. Appleby, an American expert on public administration, who was invited by the Government of India to study its administrative system. His first report (1953) strongly advocated for establishing a central institute for public administration to promote training and research. Therefore, statement 2 is correct.

Dr. Paul H. Appleby submitted two significant reports: ‘Public Administration in India, Report of a Survey’ (1953) and ‘Re-examination of India’s Administrative System with special reference to Administration of Government’s Industrial and Commercial Enterprises’ (1956). His recommendations significantly influenced the development of public administration institutions and practices in India, including the setting up of the IIPA. The separation of Audit from Accounts aimed at relieving the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of the accounting function to enable him to focus exclusively on audit, thus enhancing the effectiveness and independence of the audit function.

39. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to the UN Co

Which of the following statements are correct with regard to the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS)?

1. UNCLOS authorizes the UN Security Council to take a direct action in case of the disputes between States on sovereign rights over Exclusive Economic Zones
2. UNCLOS defines contiguous zones and specifies its functions
3. Both the US and India have ratified UNCLOS
4. UNCLOS grants certain rights to Landlocked States

Select the answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1, 2 and 4 only” option2=”1 and 2 only” option3=”2 and 4 only” option4=”1, 3 and 4″ correct=”option3″]

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The correct option is C (2 and 4 only).

Statement 1: UNCLOS establishes a comprehensive legal framework for the oceans and seas. It provides mechanisms for the settlement of disputes, including through the International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea (ITLOS) and arbitration. However, it does not authorize the UN Security Council to take direct action specifically in case of disputes between states on sovereign rights over Exclusive Economic Zones (EEZs). Disputes concerning EEZ rights are primarily legal matters to be resolved through UNCLOS mechanisms or other peaceful means. UNSC action is typically limited to situations constituting threats to international peace and security. Thus, statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 2: UNCLOS defines various maritime zones, including the contiguous zone (Part II, Article 33). It specifies that the contiguous zone may extend up to 24 nautical miles from the baselines from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured. Within this zone, a coastal state may exercise the control necessary to prevent infringement of its customs, fiscal, immigration, or sanitary laws and regulations committed within its territory or territorial sea. Thus, statement 2 is correct.
Statement 3: India has ratified UNCLOS (in 1995). However, the United States has signed UNCLOS but has not ratified it. Therefore, statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 4: UNCLOS grants certain rights to landlocked states. Part X of UNCLOS deals with the right of access of landlocked states to and from the sea and freedom of transit. It requires transit states to grant access to landlocked states through their territory by all means of transport, and specifies provisions for transit traffic. Thus, statement 4 is correct.

UNCLOS, adopted in 1982 and entered into force in 1994, is a cornerstone of international law concerning the seas and oceans. It provides rules for the limits of national jurisdiction over ocean areas, navigation rights, conservation and management of marine resources, protection of the marine environment, marine scientific research, and procedures for the settlement of disputes. The non-ratification by the US, despite its adherence to most of the provisions, is a notable point in the convention’s history.

40. Under which one among the following Articles of the Constitution of In

Under which one among the following Articles of the Constitution of India, a member of a Civil Service, whether of the Union or of a State, seeks protection from unlawful dismissal from service ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Article 309″ option2=”Article 311″ option3=”Article 315″ option4=”Article 320″ correct=”option2″]

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The correct option is B, Article 311.

Article 311 of the Constitution of India provides constitutional safeguards to civil servants (members of the Union or State civil service or all-India service) against arbitrary dismissal, removal, or reduction in rank. It states that no such person shall be dismissed or removed by an authority subordinate to that by which he was appointed. It also provides for an inquiry where the person is informed of the charges against him and given a reasonable opportunity of being heard in respect of those charges, before being dismissed, removed, or reduced in rank. This is the source of protection from unlawful dismissal or removal from service for civil servants.
Article 309 empowers Parliament and State Legislatures to regulate the recruitment, and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services and posts.
Article 315 provides for the establishment of a Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) and State Public Service Commissions (SPSCs).
Article 320 outlines the functions of the Public Service Commissions, including conducting examinations for appointments, consulting on appointments, promotions, transfers, and disciplinary matters.

Article 311 is a crucial provision ensuring security of tenure for civil servants, protecting them from political pressure or arbitrary action by the executive. However, there are certain exceptions to the requirement of inquiry under Article 311(2), such as when a person is dismissed on the ground of conduct which has led to his conviction on a criminal charge, or where the authority is satisfied that it is not reasonably practicable to hold such inquiry, or where the President or the Governor is satisfied that in the interest of the security of the State, it is not expedient to hold such inquiry.