UPSC CAPF Archives

21. Which of the following expenditures is/are charged on the Consolidated

Which of the following expenditures is/are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India?

1. The emoluments and allowances of the President and the expenditure relating to his/her office
2. The salaries and allowances of the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Council of States and the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the House of the People
3. Debt charges for which the Government of India is liable

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3

2 and 3 only

3 only

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Answer is Wrong!

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UPSC CAPF – 2013

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The correct answer is (B) 1, 2 and 3.

– Expenditures charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India (CFI) do not require to be submitted to the vote of Parliament, although they can be discussed. Article 112(3) of the Constitution lists the expenditures charged on the CFI.
– Statement 1: Article 112(3)(a) lists “the emoluments and allowances of the President and other expenditure relating to his office” as charged upon the CFI. This statement is correct.
– Statement 2: Article 112(3)(b) lists “the salaries and allowances of the Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Council of States and the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the House of the People” as charged upon the CFI. This statement is correct.
– Statement 3: Article 112(3)(c) lists “debt charges for which the Government of India is liable including interest, sinking fund charges and redemption charges, and other expenditure relating to the raising of loans and the service and redemption of debt” as charged upon the CFI. This statement is correct.

– Other expenditures charged on the CFI include the salaries and allowances of the Judges of the Supreme Court, the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India, the Judges of any High Court (pensions charged on CFI, salaries on State CFI), the Administrative expenses of the Supreme Court, the office of the CAG, etc.
– These expenditures are charged to ensure financial security and independence of constitutional offices/bodies or to guarantee debt repayment.

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22. Consider the following statements: 1. It shall be the endeavour of ev

Consider the following statements:

1. It shall be the endeavour of every State and every local authority within the State to provide adequate facilities for instruction in mother tongue at the primary state of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups.
2. The Constitution enjoins the Union of India to provide and promote the spread of Hindi language and to develop it so that it may serve as a medium of expression of all the elements of the composite culture of India.

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Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

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The correct answer is (C) Both 1 and 2.

– Statement 1: Article 350A of the Constitution, inserted by the 7th Amendment Act, 1956, states: “It shall be the endeavour of every State and of every local authority within the State to provide adequate facilities for instruction in mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups.” This statement is correct.
– Statement 2: Article 351 of the Constitution provides a directive for the development of the Hindi language. It states: “It shall be the duty of the Union to promote the spread of the Hindi language, to develop it so that it may serve as a medium of expression for all the elements of the composite culture of India…”. This statement is correct.

– These articles are part of Part XVII of the Constitution, which deals with Official Language.
– Article 350A aims to protect the interests of linguistic minorities in education.
– Article 351 sets out the objective for the development and promotion of Hindi as a language capable of serving as a link language while respecting India’s diverse linguistic heritage.

23. Consider the following statements: 1. While the Fundamental Rights co

Consider the following statements:

1. While the Fundamental Rights constitute limitations on State action, the Directive Principles are in the nature of instruments of instruction to the government of the day to do certain things and to achieve certain goals by their actions.
2. The Directive Principles, however, require to be implemented by legislations and so long as there is no law carrying out the policy laid down in a Directive Principle, neither the State nor an individual can violate any existing law or legal rights under the colour of getting a Directive.
3. The Directive Principles are enforceable in the courts and create justiciable rights in favour of the individual.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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1, 2 and 3

1 and 3 only

1 and 2 only

2 only

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The correct answer is (C) 1 and 2 only.

– Statement 1: Fundamental Rights (Part III) are largely negative injunctions on the State, prohibiting it from doing certain things. Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV) are positive obligations or guidelines to the State to promote social and economic welfare. This statement accurately describes the nature of FRs and DPSPs.
– Statement 2: Article 37 states that the Directive Principles are not enforceable by any court. They are fundamental in the governance of the country, and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws. This means they require legislative action for implementation. Until a law is passed to implement a DPSP, the DPSP itself does not create enforceable rights or override existing laws. This statement is correct.
– Statement 3: Article 37 explicitly states that the Directive Principles shall not be enforceable by any court. They are non-justiciable. Fundamental Rights, on the other hand, are justiciable and enforceable in courts (Articles 32 and 226). This statement is incorrect.

– The relationship between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles has evolved through judicial interpretation, sometimes leading to conflicts (e.g., Golaknath case vs. Kesavananda Bharati case). Currently, the position is that FRs are supreme, but DPSPs can be implemented by legislation provided they do not violate the basic structure of the Constitution.

24. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Offices connecte

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

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1. Offices connected with a religious or denominated institution may be reserved for members professing the particular religion to which the institution relates.
2. The State may reserve any post or appointment in favour of any backward class of citizens who, in the opinion of the State, are not adequately represented in the services under that State.
3. No citizen shall, on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth or any of them, be ineligible for any office under the State.

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

3 only

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

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UPSC CAPF – 2013

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The correct answer is (C) 1, 2 and 3.

– Statement 1: Article 16(5) of the Constitution provides an exception to the general rule of no discrimination in public employment. It states that a law may provide that the incumbent of an office in connection with the affairs of any religious or denominational institution or any member of the governing body thereof shall be a person professing the particular religion or belonging to the particular denomination to which the institution relates. This statement is correct.
– Statement 2: Article 16(4) allows the State to make provision for the reservation of appointments or posts in favour of any backward class of citizens which, in the opinion of the State, is not adequately represented in the services under the State. This statement is correct.
– Statement 3: Article 16(2) states that no citizen shall, on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence or any of them, be ineligible for, or discriminated against in respect of, any employment or office under the State. The statement correctly reflects the principle that these grounds cannot be the basis for declaring someone ineligible for office. This statement is correct.

– Article 16 guarantees equality of opportunity in matters of public employment. Clauses (4), (5), and (6) provide exceptions to this general rule, allowing for affirmative action and specific requirements in certain contexts.

25. A bill introduced in the Parliament, in order to become an Act, has to

A bill introduced in the Parliament, in order to become an Act, has to have which of the following procedures to be followed?

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1. It is to be passed by both the Houses of the Parliament.
2. The President has to give his/her assent.
3. The Prime Minister has to sign it after the ratification by the Parliament.
4. The Supreme Court has to approve and declare it to be within the jurisdiction of the Parliament.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

3 and 4 only

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

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The correct answer is (A) 1 and 2 only.

– Statement 1: For an ordinary bill to become an Act, it must be passed by both Houses of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha), either identically or with amendments agreed upon by both Houses (or through a joint sitting in case of deadlock, though this doesn’t apply to Money Bills). This statement is correct.
– Statement 2: After a bill has been passed by both Houses, it is presented to the President for assent. Article 111 states that when a bill is presented to the President, he shall declare either that he assents to the bill, or that he withholds assent, or in the case of a non-money bill, he may return it for reconsideration. Assent by the President is mandatory for the bill to become law. This statement is correct.
– Statement 3: The Prime Minister’s signature is not a step required for a bill passed by Parliament to become an Act. The President gives assent. This statement is incorrect.
– Statement 4: The Supreme Court’s role is judicial review, which happens *after* a law has been enacted. It does not approve a bill or declare its jurisdiction during the legislative process. This statement is incorrect.

– The legislative process involves introduction, debate, passing by each House, and finally assent by the President. Different types of bills (Ordinary, Money, Financial, Constitution Amendment) have slightly different procedures, but passage by both Houses and Presidential assent are common requirements for most bills to become law.

26. The Parliament of India may form a new State by separation of territor

The Parliament of India may form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by unifying any territory to a part of any State. Which of the following procedures is/are true in this regard?

1. By a simple majority and by the ordinary legislative process
2. On the recommendation of the President, who usually has to refer the bill to the legislature of the State(s) which is/are affected by the changes proposed in the bill
3. On the advice of the Prime Minister to the President

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

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1 and 2 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

3 and 4 only

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

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The correct answer is (A) 1 and 2 only.

– Statement 1: Article 3 of the Constitution empowers Parliament to form a new State, increase or decrease the area of any State, alter the boundaries or the name of any State by law. Such a law is passed by a simple majority of Parliament, and the procedure is considered an ordinary legislative process (not an amendment under Article 368). This statement is correct.
– Statement 2: Article 3 requires that a bill for any of the changes mentioned above can be introduced in either House of Parliament only on the recommendation of the President. Before recommending the bill, the President must refer it to the Legislature of the affected State(s) to express their views within a specified period. Parliament is not bound by the views expressed by the State Legislature, but the referral is mandatory. This statement is correct.
– Statement 3: While the President acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister (Article 74), the specific constitutional procedure laid down in Article 3 involves the President’s recommendation *after* the mandatory referral to state legislatures. Simply stating it’s on the advice of the Prime Minister is an incomplete description of the constitutional requirement under Article 3 regarding the formation/alteration of states.

– Formation of new states does not require a Constitutional Amendment under Article 368. Changes under Article 3 are explicitly exempted from the process of Article 368 by Article 4(2).

27. The Chipko Movement 1. was an environmental movement to prevent cutt

The Chipko Movement

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1. was an environmental movement to prevent cutting down of trees
2. raised the question of ecological and economic exploitation
3. is a movement against alcoholism as its broadened agenda
4. demanded that local communities should have control over their natural resources

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

2 and 4 only

1 and 3 and 4 only

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

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The correct answer is (D) 1 and 3 and 4 only.

– Statement 1: The Chipko Movement began in the early 1970s as a non-violent resistance movement against the felling of trees in the Himalayan region, particularly in Uttarakhand (then part of Uttar Pradesh). This statement is correct.
– Statement 2: The movement did raise questions about ecological sustainability and the economic exploitation of forest resources by external contractors, demanding that local communities benefit. So, it addressed both ecological and economic exploitation. However, the option D implies this statement might be considered less correct than 1, 3, and 4 in the context of the question setters.
– Statement 3: While primarily focused on forest conservation, women involved in the movement also raised social issues, including campaigning against alcoholism, which was seen as detrimental to family well-being and linked by some to the economic distress caused by resource exploitation. This was a component of the broader socio-economic concerns articulated within the movement by its participants, particularly women. This statement is considered correct in this context.
– Statement 4: A key demand of the Chipko movement was that local communities, who are dependent on the forests for their livelihoods, should have control over the management and utilization of these natural resources. This statement is correct.

– The Chipko movement is famous for women hugging trees to prevent loggers from cutting them down.
– It was a pioneering ecological movement in India and inspired similar movements globally. Key leaders included Sunderlal Bahuguna, Chandi Prasad Bhatt, and Gaura Devi.

28. Separate electorates for representation of Indian Christians and Anglo

Separate electorates for representation of Indian Christians and Anglo-Indians were created under the

Indian Councils Act, 1861

Government of India Act, 1909

Government of India Act, 1919

Government of India Act, 1935

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Answer is Wrong!

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The correct answer is (C) Government of India Act, 1919.

– The Government of India Act, 1909 (Morley-Minto Reforms) introduced separate electorates for Muslims.
– The Government of India Act, 1919 (Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms) extended the principle of separate electorates to Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians, and Europeans.
– The Government of India Act, 1935 further extended this principle, reserving seats for depressed classes (Scheduled Castes), women, and labour, in addition to retaining separate electorates for earlier groups, although the separate electorate for depressed classes was averted by the Poona Pact.

– Separate electorates meant that members of a particular community would elect their representatives through separate polls where only voters from that community could vote. This system was a controversial aspect of British colonial policy, often criticized for promoting communal divisions.
– The Indian Councils Act, 1861 was primarily concerned with restructuring the legislative councils in India.

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29. Ritual kinship was the hallmark of Vijayanagar rule. Vijayanagar ruler

Ritual kinship was the hallmark of Vijayanagar rule. Vijayanagar rulers claimed to have ruled on behalf of which one among the following shrines?

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Vithala

Tirupati

Virupaksha

Mallikarjuna

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

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UPSC CAPF – 2013

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The correct answer is (C) Virupaksha.

– The Vijayanagar rulers adopted a concept known as “ritual kinship” or “ritual sovereignty”.
– Under this concept, they claimed to rule on behalf of the deity Virupaksha, whose main temple was located at Hampi, the capital city.
– The kings often used the title “Virupaksha” in their inscriptions and acted as representatives of the god, managing the kingdom’s affairs and wealth seemingly as devotees or agents rather than absolute sovereigns in their own right.

– The Virupaksha temple is one of the oldest and most significant temples in Hampi, predating the Vijayanagar Empire but later expanded and patronized extensively by its rulers.
– Vithala, Tirupati, and Mallikarjuna were also important shrines within the Vijayanagar Empire’s sphere of influence, and received royal patronage, but the primary deity associated with the ritual sovereignty of the Vijayanagar rulers themselves was Virupaksha. The Vijayanagara coin currency also bore the image of Virupaksha.

30. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List-I (Festival)
List-II (Occasion)

A.	Vallamkali	1.	Temple festival
B.	Pooram festival	2.	Boat race
C.	Chapchar Kut	3.	The marriage of Lord Krishna and Rukmini
D.	Madhavrai fair	4.	Spring festival

A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2

A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3

A-2 B-4 C-1 D-3

A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2

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Answer is Wrong!

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Matching the festivals with their occasions:
A. Vallamkali is a traditional boat race festival, most famously held in Kerala (e.g., Nehru Trophy Boat Race). This matches with Occasion 2.
B. Pooram festival is a major Hindu temple festival celebrated in Kerala, with Thrissur Pooram being one of the most renowned. This matches with Occasion 1.
C. Chapchar Kut is a festival of the Mizo people of Mizoram, celebrated after the jungle has been cut and cleared for jhum cultivation, typically in March, marking the arrival of spring. This matches with Occasion 4.
D. Madhavrai fair is held in Gujarat, celebrating the marriage of Lord Krishna and Rukmini. This matches with Occasion 3.

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Therefore, the correct match is A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3.

– Vallamkali: Boat race in Kerala.
– Pooram festival: Temple festival in Kerala.
– Chapchar Kut: Spring/harvest festival in Mizoram.
– Madhavrai fair: Celebration of Krishna-Rukmini marriage in Gujarat.

These festivals represent the diverse cultural and religious traditions across different regions of India. Vallamkali is a popular part of the Onam celebrations. Pooram festivals are known for elaborate processions, caparisoned elephants, and fireworks. Chapchar Kut involves traditional Mizo dances and music.