UPSC CAPF

21. President’s Bodyguards is :

President’s Bodyguards is :

[amp_mcq option1=”a police force under the control of the President’s Secretariat” option2=”a paramilitary force” option3=”a unit of Delhi Police” option4=”none of the above” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2015
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The correct option is D.
The President’s Bodyguard (PBG) is an elite cavalry unit of the Indian Army. It is the senior-most regiment of the Indian Army, established in 1773. It is not a police force, a paramilitary force (which typically fall under the Ministry of Home Affairs), or a unit of the Delhi Police. It is part of the regular Indian Army structure, primarily tasked with ceremonial duties and escorting the President.
Members of the PBG are selected from the three services (Army, Navy, Air Force). While its primary role today is ceremonial and providing security cover for the President, it is a trained military unit capable of combat roles. It is based at the Rashtrapati Bhavan.

22. GRSE, BDL and MIDHANI are acronyms of :

GRSE, BDL and MIDHANI are acronyms of :

[amp_mcq option1=”Defence Public Sector Undertakings” option2=”Chemicals used for making rockets” option3=”Ammunition used in tanks” option4=”Communication satellites” correct=”option1″]

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The correct option is A.
GRSE (Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers Ltd.), BDL (Bharat Dynamics Limited), and MIDHANI (Mishra Dhatu Nigam Limited) are all public sector undertakings (PSUs) under the Ministry of Defence, Government of India. They are involved in the manufacturing and supply of equipment, systems, and materials for the Indian defence forces. GRSE is primarily a shipyard, BDL manufactures missiles and related equipment, and MIDHANI produces special metals and alloys. Thus, they are Defence Public Sector Undertakings (DPSUs).
India has several DPSUs and Ordnance Factories that form the backbone of its domestic defence production capabilities. Other prominent DPSUs include Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL), Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL), Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited (MDL), and Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL).

23. The National Human Rights Commission has : 1. a Chairperson who has

The National Human Rights Commission has :

  • 1. a Chairperson who has been a Chief Justice of Supreme Court or a High Court of India
  • 2. one Member who is or has been a Judge of Supreme Court
  • 3. one Member who is, or has been the Chief Justice of a High Court
  • 4. two Members to be appointed from amongst persons having knowledge of or practical experience in matters relating to human rights

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1, 2, 3 and 4″ option2=”1, 2 and 3 only” option3=”1 and 4 only” option4=”2, 3 and 4 only” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2015
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The correct option is D.
As per the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 (and amendments prior to 2019), the National Human Rights Commission’s composition included: a Chairperson who *must* be a former Chief Justice of the Supreme Court (not a High Court CJ or an SC Judge, as the sole eligibility criterion for the Chairperson was former CJI status) – making statement 1 incorrect. It included one member who is or has been a Judge of the Supreme Court (Statement 2 – Correct), one member who is or has been the Chief Justice of a High Court (Statement 3 – Correct), and two members with knowledge or practical experience in human rights matters (Statement 4 – Correct, as per the pre-2019 Act). Therefore, statements 2, 3, and 4 accurately describe the composition during a significant period of the NHRC’s existence.
The Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019, changed the composition criteria: the Chairperson can now be a former Chief Justice of the Supreme Court or a former Judge of the Supreme Court. The number of members with human rights knowledge/experience was increased from two to three. However, statement 1 as written remains incorrect even after the 2019 amendment because a High Court Chief Justice is still not eligible for the Chairperson role. Given the options, the question likely refers to the structure before the 2019 amendment concerning the number of expert members.

24. In 1893, there occurred a split in the Arya Samaj on the issue(s) of :

In 1893, there occurred a split in the Arya Samaj on the issue(s) of :

  • 1. Meat-eating vs vegetarianism
  • 2. Caste system and widow remarriage
  • 3. Shuddhi of converts
  • 4. Anglicised vs Sanskrit-based education

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1, 3 and 4″ option2=”2, 3 and 4″ option3=”1 and 4 only” option4=”1 only” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2015
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The correct option is C.
The split in the Arya Samaj in 1893, following the death of Swami Dayananda Saraswati, was primarily driven by differences in approach to education and social practices. One faction, led by Lala Hans Raj and Lala Lajpat Rai, favoured Anglicised education and established the Dayanand Anglo-Vedic (DAV) College. The other faction, led by Swami Shraddhanand and Pandit Guru Dutt Vidyarthi, advocated for a more traditional Sanskrit-based education focused on the Vedas, leading to the establishment of the Gurukul Kangri. Differences over dietary practices, specifically meat-eating versus vegetarianism, also contributed to the divergence between the groups. Caste system, widow remarriage, and Shuddhi were core tenets or programmes of the Arya Samaj, not issues that caused the 1893 split.
The split divided the movement into the ‘College Party’ (pro-Anglicised education) and the ‘Gurukul Party’ (pro-Sanskrit-based education). While the Gurukul group tended to be more conservative on social matters, the primary points of contention leading to the 1893 split were education style and, to a lesser extent, dietary issues.

25. Which one of the following statements is correct ?

Which one of the following statements is correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”India is the largest importer of defence equipment in the world” option2=”The United States of America was the second largest exporter of defence equipment to India in 2014″ option3=”Russia has stopped exporting defence equipment to India” option4=”India meets not more than 25 per cent of its requirement of defence equipment through import” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2015
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The correct option is B.
According to data from the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI) for the period 2010-2014 and specifically for the year 2014, the United States was indeed the second largest supplier of major arms to India, after Russia. Statement A is also factually correct for 2014 and the surrounding period, where India was the world’s largest importer of major arms. However, given that option B refers to a specific year mentioned within the statement, making it a precise historical fact, and option A is a more general statement (though true for the relevant period), option B is likely the intended correct answer, focusing on a verifiable data point presented in the question itself. Statement C is incorrect as Russia remains a major, though decreasingly dominant, supplier. Statement D is incorrect as India relies heavily on imports, meeting a much higher percentage of its defence equipment requirements through imports rather than domestic production (which was significantly less than 75% around that time).
SIPRI data is widely considered a reliable source for international arms transfer trends. While India has historically been a major importer, its rank can fluctuate over time. The relationship with major suppliers like Russia and the US has evolved, with India diversifying its sources. Domestic defence manufacturing (Make in India) aims to reduce reliance on imports, but it’s a long-term goal.

26. All proposals for acquisition of weapon systems involving capital expe

All proposals for acquisition of weapon systems involving capital expenditure of more than Rs 1,000 crore require the approval of the :

[amp_mcq option1=”Defence Minister” option2=”Prime Minister” option3=”Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs” option4=”Cabinet Committee on Security” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2015
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The correct option is D.
Major defence acquisitions involving significant capital expenditure and having strategic implications are approved by the highest decision-making body on security matters, which is the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS). Proposals exceeding a certain financial threshold, like Rs 1,000 crore mentioned here, fall under the purview of the CCS, chaired by the Prime Minister.
Defence procurement procedures in India involve different levels of approval depending on the cost and nature of the acquisition. While the Defence Minister and other bodies like the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) approve proposals below certain limits, the most expensive and strategically important acquisitions require CCS approval. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs deals with economic policy matters, not defence procurements.

27. The 2nd Administrative Reforms Commission has produced Reports on :

The 2nd Administrative Reforms Commission has produced Reports on :

  • 1. Ethics in Governance
  • 2. Local Governance
  • 3. Combating Terrorism
  • 4. Eradication of Corruption

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1, 3 and 4″ option2=”2, 3 and 4″ option3=”1 and 2 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2015
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The correct option is D.
The 2nd Administrative Reforms Commission (2005-2009), chaired by Veerappa Moily, produced 15 reports on various aspects of public administration. Three of the listed topics correspond directly to the titles of its reports: ‘Ethics in Governance’ (4th Report), ‘Local Governance’ (6th Report), and ‘Combating Terrorism’ (8th Report). ‘Eradication of Corruption’ was a key theme discussed within reports like ‘Ethics in Governance’, but it was not the standalone title of a specific report.
The 2nd ARC reports covered a wide range of subjects including Right to Information, Crisis Management, Public Order, Capacity Building, Social Capital, Personnel Administration, e-Governance, Citizen Centric Administration, Financial Management, etc. Its recommendations aimed at reforming the Indian public administration system to make it more efficient, ethical, and responsive.

28. Which one of the following was NOT the feature of the Home Rule moveme

Which one of the following was NOT the feature of the Home Rule movement in India ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Boycott and Picketing” option2=”Two separate Home-Rule Leagues rather than one All-India Home-Rule Organisation” option3=”Setting up of discussion groups and reading rooms” option4=”Sale and circulation of pamphlets” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in
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The correct option is A.
The Home Rule movement (1916-1918) primarily focused on achieving self-government within the British Empire through constitutional means, public meetings, propaganda, and organisation. Tactics like boycott and picketing were more characteristic of the Swadeshi movement (1905-1908) and later, the Non-Cooperation movement (1920-1922). Boycott and picketing were not central features of the Home Rule movement’s methods.
The Home Rule movement saw the formation of two separate leagues: one led by Bal Gangadhar Tilak (primarily in Maharashtra, except Bombay city, Karnataka, Central Provinces, and Berar) and the other by Annie Besant (covering the rest of India). Both leagues aimed at raising political consciousness and demanding Home Rule. They actively used methods like public meetings, lectures, discussions, and extensive publication and distribution of pamphlets, newspapers, and books.

29. Who functions as chairman, Chiefs of Staff Committee?

Who functions as chairman, Chiefs of Staff Committee?

[amp_mcq option1=”Defence Minister” option2=”The longest serving Chief among the Chiefs of the three services” option3=”The Chief of Integrated Defence Staff” option4=”The Chief of the Army Staff” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
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The correct option is B.
Prior to the creation of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) position as the permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee (COSC), the Chairman of the COSC was the longest-serving among the three Service Chiefs (Army, Navy, and Air Force). This question appears to be framed in the context of that earlier system, as the CDS is not listed as an option and the Chief of Integrated Defence Staff is a different role.
The Chiefs of Staff Committee (COSC) consists of the Chiefs of the Army Staff, the Naval Staff, and the Air Staff. With the creation of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) post in late 2019/early 2020, the CDS became the permanent Chairman of the COSC, serving as the Principal Military Advisor to the Defence Minister. Before the CDS, the chairmanship rotated based on seniority among the three service chiefs. The Chief of Integrated Defence Staff reports to the CDS.

30. The present cap (as on 01.01.2015) on Foreign Direct Investment in the

The present cap (as on 01.01.2015) on Foreign Direct Investment in the defence sector is:

[amp_mcq option1=”26%” option2=”49%” option3=”74%” option4=”100%” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in
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The cap on Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in the defence sector as of 01.01.2015 was 49%.
Prior to August 2014, the FDI limit in the defence sector was 26% under the government approval route. In August 2014, the Government of India revised the FDI policy for the defence sector, increasing the limit to 49% under the government approval route. FDI beyond 49% was also permitted on a case-by-case basis subject to approval of the Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS), provided it was likely to result in access to modern and ‘state-of-art’ technology. This revised policy was in effect on 01.01.2015.
The FDI policy in the defence sector has undergone further liberalization since 2015. In 2020, the limit under the automatic route was increased to 74%, and up to 100% under the government route where it is likely to result in access to modern technology. Therefore, it is crucial to note the specific date mentioned in the question when considering FDI limits.
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