11. Suppose the nth term of a series is $1+\frac{n}{2}+\frac{n^2}{2}$. If

Suppose the nth term of a series is $1+\frac{n}{2}+\frac{n^2}{2}$. If there are 20 terms in the series, then the sum of the series is equal to

1360
1450
1500
1560
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2021
The correct answer is D) 1560.
The nth term of the series is $a_n = 1+\frac{n}{2}+\frac{n^2}{2}$. We need to find the sum of the first 20 terms, $S_{20} = \sum_{n=1}^{20} a_n$.
$S_{20} = \sum_{n=1}^{20} (1+\frac{n}{2}+\frac{n^2}{2}) = \sum_{n=1}^{20} 1 + \frac{1}{2}\sum_{n=1}^{20} n + \frac{1}{2}\sum_{n=1}^{20} n^2$
Using standard summation formulas:
$\sum_{n=1}^{N} c = Nc$
$\sum_{n=1}^{N} n = \frac{N(N+1)}{2}$
$\sum_{n=1}^{N} n^2 = \frac{N(N+1)(2N+1)}{6}$
Here, N = 20.
$\sum_{n=1}^{20} 1 = 20 \times 1 = 20$
$\sum_{n=1}^{20} n = \frac{20(20+1)}{2} = \frac{20 \times 21}{2} = 10 \times 21 = 210$
$\sum_{n=1}^{20} n^2 = \frac{20(20+1)(2 \times 20 + 1)}{6} = \frac{20 \times 21 \times 41}{6} = \frac{10 \times 7 \times 41}{1} = 2870$
Now substitute these values back into the sum expression:
$S_{20} = 20 + \frac{1}{2}(210) + \frac{1}{2}(2870)$
$S_{20} = 20 + 105 + 1435$
$S_{20} = 125 + 1435 = 1560$.
The problem requires separating the given nth term into terms based on powers of n and applying standard summation formulas for constants, linear terms, and quadratic terms. Careful calculation is needed for each part and then summing them up.

12. Which one of the following statements with regard to the Directive Pri

Which one of the following statements with regard to the Directive Principles of State Policy is not correct?

They are not enforceable in a court of law.
They can override all the fundamental rights.
They can be related to social and economic justice.
They can be related to giving free legal aid.
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2021
The correct answer is B) They can override all the fundamental rights.
This statement is incorrect. Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) are non-justiciable and cannot ordinarily override Fundamental Rights, which are justiciable. The relationship between Fundamental Rights and DPSPs has been a subject of judicial interpretation. While Parliament has the power to amend Fundamental Rights to implement DPSPs (as provided under Article 31C, though subject to judicial review regarding the ‘basic structure’), the DPSPs cannot automatically override all Fundamental Rights. The Supreme Court has often emphasized the harmony and balance between the two parts as essential for the constitutional scheme.
Statement A is correct as DPSPs are explicitly stated in Article 37 as not enforceable by any court. Statement C is correct; DPSPs aim to achieve social and economic justice, forming the basis of India’s welfare state objectives. Statement D is correct; Article 39A, a DPSP, directs the state to provide free legal aid to ensure justice is not denied due to economic or other disabilities.

13. Which one of the following statements about ‘personal liberty’ is not

Which one of the following statements about ‘personal liberty’ is not correct?

State does not have the authority to deprive any person within the territory of India of his/her personal liberty without any rational basis.
Basis of depriving a person of his/her personal liberty must be in accordance with procedures established by law.
Personal liberty can be secured by the judicial writ of Habeas Corpus.
The majority view of the Supreme Court in A. K. Gopalan vs. State of Madras case invented 'due process of law'.
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2021
The correct answer is D) The majority view of the Supreme Court in A. K. Gopalan vs. State of Madras case invented ‘due process of law’.
This statement is incorrect. In the A. K. Gopalan vs. State of Madras case (1950), the Supreme Court interpreted the phrase “procedure established by law” in Article 21 narrowly. It held that this phrase meant procedure *enacted* by law, regardless of whether that procedure was fair or just. This interpretation specifically rejected the ‘due process of law’ concept prevalent in the American constitution, which includes elements of both procedural and substantive fairness. The concept of ‘due process’ in the Indian context, particularly its substantive aspect, was later introduced through subsequent landmark judgments, most notably the Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India case (1978), which held that the procedure established by law must be fair, just, and reasonable.
Statements A, B, and C are correct regarding personal liberty under Article 21. State power to deprive liberty is limited by law and rational basis (post-Maneka Gandhi). Deprivation must follow procedure established by law (explicit in Article 21). The writ of Habeas Corpus is a crucial tool for safeguarding personal liberty against unlawful detention.

14. Who among the following fixes the date of election of the Speaker of t

Who among the following fixes the date of election of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha?

The President of India
The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
The Secretary General of the Lok Sabha
The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2021
The correct answer is A) The President of India.
According to Rule 7 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of a Speaker that takes place subsequent to a vacancy in the office is held on such date as the President may fix. While the first sitting of the newly elected Lok Sabha is presided over by a Speaker pro-tem appointed by the President, the date for the election of the regular Speaker in a new Lok Sabha is also ultimately fixed by the President. The Secretary-General then informs the members of this date.
The Minister of Parliamentary Affairs plays a role in coordinating the government’s legislative business, but does not fix the date for the Speaker’s election. The Secretary General of the Lok Sabha communicates the date but does not fix it. The Deputy Speaker presides over the Lok Sabha in the absence of the Speaker, but is elected *after* the Speaker and does not fix the date for the Speaker’s election.

15. Who among the following warned his colleagues that the Constituent Ass

Who among the following warned his colleagues that the Constituent Assembly was British made and was “working the British plan as the British should like it to be worked out”?

Somnath Lahiri
B. R. Ambedkar
Shyama Prasad Mukherjee
B. N. Rau
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2021
The correct answer is A) Somnath Lahiri.
During the Constituent Assembly debates, Somnath Lahiri, a Communist member, expressed significant reservations about the nature and origins of the Assembly. He argued that the Assembly had been formed under the aegis of the British Cabinet Mission Plan and that the British government retained a significant degree of control over its functioning. He famously stated that the Assembly was “working the British plan as the British should like it to be worked out,” implying that it was not truly a sovereign body acting solely in the interests of the Indian people.
Other options are incorrect because B. R. Ambedkar was a key architect of the Constitution and Chairman of the Drafting Committee, thus unlikely to make such a fundamental critique of the Assembly’s legitimacy. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee represented a nationalist perspective but was not the source of this specific criticism regarding British influence on the Assembly’s core functioning. B. N. Rau was the Constitutional Advisor and played a technical role, not a political one involving such criticism.

16. Consider the following statements: 1. Under Akbar, the system of Zab

Consider the following statements:

  • 1. Under Akbar, the system of Zabt was established over a large area from Punjab to Awadh.
  • 2. In the seventeenth century North India, the system of Zabt lost much ground to the system of Kankut.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2021
The correct answer is (A) 1 only.
Statement 1 is correct. The Zabt system, also known as the Dahsala system, was a comprehensive land revenue assessment method based on measurement and average produce over the past ten years. It was implemented by Raja Todar Mal during Akbar’s reign in the core areas of the Mughal Empire, covering fertile regions from Punjab to Awadh, and parts of Malwa, Delhi, and Agra.
Statement 2 is incorrect. While other methods of assessment like Batai (crop-sharing) and Kankut (estimation of standing crop) were used alongside Zabt, especially in areas where Zabt was difficult to implement, it is not accurate to say that Zabt “lost much ground” to Kankut specifically across North India in the 17th century. Zabt remained the preferred and most systematic method in the well-administered regions, though its efficiency varied, and other methods continued to be prevalent or even gained importance in certain areas due to practical reasons or administrative challenges.
The Zabt system was a significant administrative reform of Akbar’s reign, aiming for a more rational and stable revenue collection. However, it was complex and required detailed land surveys and record-keeping, which limited its universal application throughout the vast empire.

17. Which one of the following pairs of Deccan Sultanates and their respec

Which one of the following pairs of Deccan Sultanates and their respective regions is not correctly matched?

Nizam Shahis : Bijapur
Barid Shahis : Bidar
Qutb Shahis : Golkonda
Imad Shahis : Berar
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2021
The correct answer is (A) Nizam Shahis : Bijapur.
The Deccan Sultanates were five medieval kingdoms that emerged from the break-up of the Bahmani Sultanate. Their correct regions were:
– Nizam Shahis ruled the Sultanate of Ahmednagar.
– Adil Shahis ruled the Sultanate of Bijapur.
– Barid Shahis ruled the Sultanate of Bidar.
– Qutb Shahis ruled the Sultanate of Golkonda.
– Imad Shahis ruled the Sultanate of Berar.
Therefore, the pair Nizam Shahis : Bijapur is incorrectly matched.
These sultanates played a significant role in the political and cultural history of the Deccan region from the late 15th to the late 17th centuries. They eventually fell to the Mughal Empire.

18. Qutb Minar was originally four-storied. Who among the following Delhi

Qutb Minar was originally four-storied. Who among the following Delhi Sultans raised the height to the structure by adding the fifth storey?

Balban
Alauddin Khalji
Muhammad Tughlaq
Firoz Shah Tughlaq
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2021
The correct answer is (D) Firoz Shah Tughlaq.
Construction of the Qutb Minar was initiated by Qutb-ud-din Aibak and largely completed by his successor, Iltutmish. The minar originally had four storeys. It was damaged by lightning in 1368. Firoz Shah Tughlaq, the Sultan of Delhi from the Tughlaq dynasty, undertook repairs to the damaged upper storeys and added a fifth storey, increasing the height of the structure. He replaced the damaged top (originally fourth) storey with two new smaller storeys made of marble and sandstone.
Later, Sikandar Lodi also carried out some repairs to the Qutb Minar in the early 16th century. The Qutb Minar complex is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.

19. Consider the following statements: 1. The early Sikh Gurus were rel

Consider the following statements:

  • 1. The early Sikh Gurus were religious preachers and did not interfere in politics but Guru Arjan extended his good wishes for the rebel prince Khusrau.
  • 2. Guru Arjan attempted to organize the finances by introducing the system of more or less compulsory tribute’ to be collected by his agents called Masands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2021
The correct answer is (C) Both 1 and 2.
Statement 1 is correct. The early Sikh Gurus primarily focused on spiritual and religious teachings. Guru Arjan Dev, the fifth Guru, did extend blessings to Prince Khusrau when he rebelled against his father, Emperor Jahangir. This act was seen as supporting a rebel and contributed to Guru Arjan’s subsequent persecution and martyrdom by Jahangir.
Statement 2 is also correct. Guru Arjan Dev played a crucial role in organizing the Sikh community’s finances. He systematized the collection of Dasvandh (a tenth of one’s income), which Sikhs were encouraged to contribute. He appointed Masands (local representatives) in different areas to collect these contributions and forward them to the Guru. While initially a voluntary contribution, the system developed into a structured and expected form of collection, which some later described as ‘more or less compulsory tribute’.
The Masand system helped in unifying the community and funding the Guru’s activities, including building Gurdwaras and managing community kitchens (Langar). However, the system eventually suffered from corruption, leading Guru Gobind Singh (the tenth Guru) to abolish it.

20. Where is Asan Conservation Reserve located?

Where is Asan Conservation Reserve located?

Himachal Pradesh
Uttarakhand
Sikkim
Arunachal Pradesh
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CAPF – 2021
The correct answer is (B) Uttarakhand.
Asan Conservation Reserve is located in Uttarakhand, near Dehradun. It is a wetland ecosystem situated at the confluence of the Asan and Yamuna rivers. It was declared India’s first Conservation Reserve under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.
Conservation Reserves and Community Reserves are categories introduced in the Wildlife (Protection) Amendment Act of 2002 to provide protection to areas adjoining National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries or areas linking one Protected Area with another. Asan Conservation Reserve is also a Ramsar Site, recognized as a Wetland of International Importance.