UPSC CAPF Archives

11. Arrange the following passes from West to East direction : 1. Bara Lac

Arrange the following passes from West to East direction :
1. Bara Lacha La
2. Shipki La
3. Jelep La
4. Bomdi La
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1-2-3-4

1-3-2-4

2-3-4-1

2-4-3-1

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UPSC CAPF – 2022

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The correct option is A. The correct arrangement of the passes from West to East is Bara Lacha La, Shipki La, Jelep La, Bomdi La (1-2-3-4).

– To arrange these passes from West to East, we need to locate them geographically in the Himalayas.
– 1. Bara Lacha La: Located in the Zanskar Range, connecting Himachal Pradesh and Ladakh. It is one of the westernmost passes among the given options.
– 2. Shipki La: Located in the Satluj valley, connecting Himachal Pradesh with Tibet (China). It is east of Bara Lacha La.
– 3. Jelep La: Located in the Chumbi Valley, connecting Sikkim with Tibet (China). It is in the Eastern Himalayas, significantly east of Himachal Pradesh.
– 4. Bomdi La: Located in Arunachal Pradesh, connecting Arunachal Pradesh with Tibet (China). It is further east in the Eastern Himalayas than Jelep La.
– Therefore, the order from West to East is Bara Lacha La (HP/Ladakh) -> Shipki La (HP) -> Jelep La (Sikkim) -> Bomdi La (Arunachal Pradesh), which is 1-2-3-4.

– These passes are important routes through the Himalayas, often used for trade and travel historically.
– Bara Lacha La is on the Manali-Leh highway.
– Shipki La is one of India’s border posts for trade with China.
– Jelep La is on the route to Lhasa from Kalimpong.
– Bomdi La is an important strategic pass in Arunachal Pradesh.

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12. Which of the following sets of Indian States are landlocked and do `no

Which of the following sets of Indian States are landlocked and do `not` have an international boundary?

Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Haryana, Jharkhand and Madhya Pradesh

Chhattisgarh, Haryana, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh and Telangana

Chhattisgarh, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh and Telangana

Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh

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UPSC CAPF – 2022

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The correct option is B. This set includes states that are landlocked and do not share an international boundary.

– Landlocked states are those that do not have a coastline.
– States with international boundaries share borders with other countries like Pakistan, Afghanistan, China, Nepal, Bhutan, Myanmar, Bangladesh.
– Let’s examine the options:
– A) Andhra Pradesh has a coastline. (Incorrect)
– B) Chhattisgarh, Haryana, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Telangana are all landlocked and do not share a border with any international country. (Correct)
– C) Himachal Pradesh shares an international border with China. (Incorrect)
– D) Andhra Pradesh has a coastline. (Incorrect)

– Landlocked states in India include Haryana, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Telangana. Other landlocked states like Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Rajasthan, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Assam, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram, Tripura, Arunachal Pradesh all share international boundaries.
– The list of landlocked states *without* an international boundary is smaller and includes Haryana, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, and Telangana.

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13. Which of the following pairs of years and historical events is correct

Which of the following pairs of years and historical events is correctly matched?

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1878 : Second Anglo-Afghan War

1885 : Ilbert Bill Controversy

1785 : Fox's India Bill

1898 : Lord Curzon becomes the Viceroy

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The correct option is A. The year 1878 correctly matches the Second Anglo-Afghan War.

– Option A: The Second Anglo-Afghan War began in November 1878 during the tenure of Viceroy Lord Lytton and concluded in 1880.
– Option B: The Ilbert Bill Controversy occurred in 1883-1884, during the time of Viceroy Lord Ripon (1880-1884). 1885 is notably the year the Indian National Congress was founded.
– Option C: Fox’s India Bill was introduced in the British Parliament in 1783 but did not pass. Pitt’s India Act was passed in 1784. 1785 is not specifically associated with these major India Bills.
– Option D: Lord Curzon became the Viceroy of India in 1899, not 1898. Lord Elgin II was Viceroy from 1894 to 1898.

– The Second Anglo-Afghan War was fought due to British concerns over increasing Russian influence in Afghanistan.
– The Ilbert Bill sought to allow Indian judges to preside over cases involving British subjects, which caused significant controversy among the British community in India.
– The regulatory framework for British rule in India was significantly altered by legislation in the late 18th century, including Pitt’s India Act of 1784.
– Lord Curzon’s tenure (1899-1905) is known for various administrative reforms and controversial policies, including the Partition of Bengal.

14. Consider the following historical events in India carefully: 1. The

Consider the following historical events in India carefully:

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1. The Indian press failed to protest against the Vernacular Press Act of 1878.
2. The Vernacular Press Act of 1878 was introduced by Viceroy Lytton against the counsel of his own Law Member.

Which of the above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

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The correct option is B. Only the second statement is correct.

– Statement 1 is incorrect. The Indian press did not fail to protest against the Vernacular Press Act of 1878; rather, it was met with strong protests from the nationalist press and the public. Many vernacular newspapers opposed the Act vehemently. Some, like ‘Amrita Bazar Patrika’, even changed their language overnight to English to escape the Act’s provisions.
– Statement 2 is correct. The Vernacular Press Act of 1878 was introduced by Viceroy Lord Lytton. Historical accounts indicate that Lord Lytton’s Law Member, Sir Arthur Hobhouse, had reservations about the severity of the proposed legislation or even opposed it, but it was pushed through.

– The Vernacular Press Act, also known as the ‘Gagging Act’, was passed to better control the vernacular press and prevent seditious writing. It allowed the government to confiscate printing presses and assets of newspapers publishing objectionable material.
– The Act was repealed by Viceroy Lord Ripon in 1882.
– The protest against the Act was a significant step in the development of nationalist consciousness and organization in India.

15. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the appointment of

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the appointment of District Judges?

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They are appointed by the Chief Justice of the concerned High Court.

They are appointed by the President of India on the advice of the Chief Justice of the concerned High Court.

They are appointed by the Governor in consultation with the High Court of the concerned State.

They are appointed by the Supreme Court on the advice of the concerned High Court.

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The correct option is C. The appointment of District Judges in India is made by the Governor of the State in consultation with the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to such State.

– Article 233 of the Constitution of India deals with the appointment of District Judges.
– It explicitly states that appointments, postings, and promotion of persons to be and district judges in any State shall be made by the Governor of the State in consultation with the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to such State.

– The recruitment of persons other than district judges to the judicial service of a State is also regulated by the Governor of the State in accordance with rules made by him in that behalf after consultation with the State Public Service Commission and with the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to such State (Article 234).
– The control over district courts and courts subordinate thereto, including the posting, promotion, and grant of leave to persons belonging to the judicial service of a State and holding any post inferior to the post of a district judge, is vested in the High Court (Article 235).

16. As part of the Look/Act East Policy, which one of the following capita

As part of the Look/Act East Policy, which one of the following capitals of North-East Indian States is proposed to be connected with Bangladesh via rail route?

Agartala

Kohima

Imphal

Itanagar

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The Look East Policy, now enhanced as the Act East Policy, emphasizes connectivity with Southeast Asia and improving infrastructure within India’s North-Eastern states, including connectivity to neighboring countries like Bangladesh. Among the given options, Agartala, the capital of Tripura, has a functional international rail link with Bangladesh (Akhaura, near Agartala). The Agartala-Akhaura rail line is a significant project under the Act East Policy aimed at enhancing connectivity between North-East India and Bangladesh.

Improving infrastructure and connectivity, including rail, road, and waterways, within the North-East and with neighboring countries is a crucial component of India’s Act East Policy to boost trade, tourism, and people-to-people contact.

While other North-Eastern state capitals (Kohima, Imphal, Itanagar) are also part of broader connectivity plans within the region and to Southeast Asia, the direct and operational rail link to Bangladesh currently exists prominently from Agartala. Connectivity projects involving other NE states and neighboring countries are in various stages of planning or development, but Agartala is a key, established rail link point.

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17. Which one of the following was `not` a feature of the art of painting

Which one of the following was `not` a feature of the art of painting in India in the 19th century?

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Art was being produced for the open market.

The artist (Shilpi) became distinct from the artisan (Karigar).

The technique of oil painting was developed.

The distinction between elite and popular art widened.

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The 19th century in India saw significant changes in art, largely due to colonial influence, the decline of traditional patronage, and the introduction of new techniques and markets.
A) Art was being produced for the open market: True. With the decline of royal and aristocratic patronage, artists increasingly catered to a wider market, including British residents and the Indian middle class (e.g., Kalighat paintings in Calcutta).
B) The artist (Shilpi) became distinct from the artisan (Karigar): True, or at least the distinction became more pronounced and redefined. The introduction of Western art education emphasizing ‘fine art’ created a hierarchy that separated artists trained in academic styles from traditional craftspeople or artisans.
C) The technique of oil painting was developed: This is incorrect. The technique of oil painting was developed in Europe centuries before the 19th century. In the 19th century, this technique was *introduced* and *popularized* in India, notably by artists like Raja Ravi Varma, but it was not *developed* in India during this period.
D) The distinction between elite and popular art widened: True. The patronage of Western academic art by the elite, contrasting with popular forms like Kalighat paintings catering to a mass urban market, led to a clearer and perhaps wider distinction between elite and popular art.
The statement that was NOT a feature of the art of painting in India in the 19th century is that oil painting was developed there.

The 19th century marked a transition in Indian art under colonial rule, involving shifts in patronage, introduction of Western techniques (like oil painting and perspective), and the emergence of new art schools and markets.

Notable art movements and styles of the 19th century include Company School paintings (hybrid style patronized by the British), Kalighat paintings, and the works of artists like Raja Ravi Varma who blended Indian themes with European techniques.

18. With reference to Indian economy, the term ‘bad bank’, frequently ment

With reference to Indian economy, the term ‘bad bank’, frequently mentioned in news, refers to

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an asset reconstruction company

an asset management company

a bank with huge 'nonperforming assets'

a bank that has become insolvent

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In the context of the Indian economy, the term ‘bad bank’ frequently mentioned in news refers to a proposed or established financial institution specifically designed to take over the bad loans (non-performing assets or NPAs) of other banks, especially public sector banks. This entity is essentially an Asset Reconstruction Company (ARC) that specializes in acquiring stressed assets from banks to resolve them.
Option A, “an asset reconstruction company,” correctly describes the nature of a ‘bad bank’.

The primary function of a bad bank is to clean up the balance sheets of commercial banks by purchasing their NPAs, allowing the commercial banks to focus on normal banking activities like lending.

In India, the National Asset Reconstruction Company Ltd (NARCL) has been set up as a form of ‘bad bank’ to take over large value stressed assets from commercial banks. An accompanying India Debt Resolution Company Ltd (IDRCL) is intended to manage and dispose of the acquired assets.

19. The principle of ‘common but differentiated responsibilities and respe

The principle of ‘common but differentiated responsibilities and respective capabilities’, often talked about in media, refers to

WHO's COVID-19 Global Vaccination Drive

contributions to the International Monetary Fund

reduction of greenhouse gas emissions

contributions to the United Nations Peacekeeping Operations

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The principle of ‘common but differentiated responsibilities and respective capabilities’ is a cornerstone of international environmental law, particularly within the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) and subsequent agreements like the Kyoto Protocol and the Paris Agreement. It recognizes that while all states share a common responsibility for addressing global environmental problems, particularly climate change, they have contributed to the problem in different ways and possess different capacities (technical, financial, etc.) to address it. This principle underlies the differential obligations placed on developed and developing countries regarding emissions reduction targets and financial/technological support.
Option C, “reduction of greenhouse gas emissions,” is directly related to climate change negotiations where this principle is most prominently discussed and applied.

The principle acknowledges historical responsibilities for emissions (developed countries) and varying capacities for action (developing countries).

The principle is enshrined in Article 3.1 of the UNFCCC. It aims to ensure fairness and equity in addressing global environmental challenges, especially climate change.

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20. Consider the following statements with reference to the latest guideli

Consider the following statements with reference to the latest guidelines issued by the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In):

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Data centres and service providers shall compulsorily report cyber security breaches within 24 hours.
Virtual Private Network providers shall retain user data for at least five years and share records with authorities when required.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

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Answer is Wrong!

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UPSC CAPF – 2022

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The latest guidelines issued by the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) in April 2022 mandate specific requirements for entities like data centers, cloud service providers, Virtual Private Network (VPN) providers, etc.
Statement 1 says data centres and service providers shall report cyber security breaches within 24 hours. The CERT-In direction requires reporting of cyber security incidents within 6 hours of noticing the incident or being informed about it. Thus, statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 2 says Virtual Private Network providers shall retain user data for at least five years and share records with authorities when required. The guidelines require VPN providers and other entities to retain certain user data for a period of five years and provide it to CERT-In when mandated. Thus, statement 2 is correct.

The CERT-In directions aim to improve India’s cyber security posture by enhancing incident reporting mechanisms and enabling better tracing of malicious activities.

The types of data to be retained by VPN providers include validated name, address, email, and phone number of the subscriber, along with the IP address and email address used for registration, timestamp of registration, and the IP address and timestamp used for connecting to the service.