UPSC CAPF Archives

11. Which one among the following items has maximum weight in wholesale pr

Which one among the following items has maximum weight in wholesale price index in India?

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Primary article

Fuel and power

Manufactured product

Food item

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UPSC CAPF – 2013

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The correct answer is C) Manufactured product. This item group holds the maximum weight in the current Wholesale Price Index (WPI) series in India.

– The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) in India is a key inflation indicator. It is calculated based on changes in the average price of a basket of goods at the wholesale level.
– The WPI basket is divided into three major groups: Primary Articles, Fuel and Power, and Manufactured Products.
– As per the current WPI series with the base year 2011-12, the approximate weights of these groups are:
– Primary Articles: 22.6%
– Fuel and Power: 13.2%
– Manufactured Products: 64.2%
– Clearly, Manufactured Products have the highest weight among the three main groups.
– “Food item” is not a major group itself but a category that appears within both Primary Articles (e.g., food grains, fruits, vegetables) and Manufactured Products (e.g., processed food products). Therefore, comparing a sub-category like “Food item” directly with main groups is not appropriate based on the standard WPI structure.

The WPI measures inflation at the producer level (wholesale), while the Consumer Price Index (CPI) measures inflation at the consumer level (retail). For monetary policy decisions, the Reserve Bank of India primarily uses the CPI, though WPI is also monitored for understanding cost-push factors and supply-side pressures.

12. If we deduct grants for creation of capital assets from revenue defici

If we deduct grants for creation of capital assets from revenue deficit, we arrive at the concept of

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primary deficit

net fiscal deficit

budgetary deficit

effective revenue deficit

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The correct answer is D) effective revenue deficit. This concept is specifically defined as the revenue deficit minus grants for the creation of capital assets.

– Revenue Deficit = Total Revenue Expenditure – Total Revenue Receipts. It indicates the excess of revenue expenditure over revenue receipts, signifying that the government is borrowing even to meet its revenue expenses.
– Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure – Total Receipts (excluding borrowings). It represents the total borrowing requirement of the government to meet its expenditure.
– Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit – Interest Payments. It shows the fiscal deficit excluding the interest burden on past debts.
– Budgetary Deficit (now largely obsolete in India) was the difference between total expenditure and total receipts (both revenue and capital).
– Effective Revenue Deficit: Introduced in the Union Budget 2011-12, it is defined as Revenue Deficit minus Grants for Creation of Capital Assets. Grants given by the Union Government to states and UTs are treated as revenue expenditure in the Union Budget, but if these grants are used by the recipients to create capital assets, they contribute to overall capital formation in the economy. The effective revenue deficit aims to reflect the revenue deficit more accurately by excluding this portion of grants that leads to asset creation.

The concept of Effective Revenue Deficit was a step towards recognizing the qualitative aspect of expenditure, distinguishing between revenue expenditure that is purely consumptive and that which contributes to capital formation. It was mentioned in the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act framework initially, though the specific definitions and targets have evolved over time.

13. The following are some of the items of expenditure of the Central Gove

The following are some of the items of expenditure of the Central Government in India :

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Interest payments
Major subsidies
Pensions
Loans and advances

Which of the above is/are included in non-plan revenue expenditure?

1 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

2, 3 and 4

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UPSC CAPF – 2013

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The correct answer is C) 1, 2 and 3. Interest payments, major subsidies, and pensions are all significant components of the Central Government’s non-plan revenue expenditure.

– Government expenditure in India is classified into Revenue Expenditure and Capital Expenditure, and traditionally also into Plan and Non-Plan Expenditure. Non-Plan Expenditure constitutes the largest part of the government’s total expenditure.
– Revenue Expenditure includes all those expenditures of the government that do not result in the creation of physical or financial assets. Non-Plan Revenue Expenditure covers the essential running costs of the government and various obligations.
– Item 1: Interest payments on the national debt are a major component of non-plan revenue expenditure, representing the cost of borrowing.
– Item 2: Major subsidies provided by the government (like food, fertilizer, petroleum) are also part of non-plan revenue expenditure, aiming at social welfare or economic support.
– Item 3: Pensions paid to retired government employees are also classified as non-plan revenue expenditure.
– Item 4: Loans and advances given by the Central Government to states, union territories, public sector undertakings, or other parties are typically classified as Capital Expenditure because they are financial assets for the central government (recoverable advances).

While the distinction between Plan and Non-Plan expenditure has been discontinued since the abolition of the Planning Commission and Five Year Plans, the question likely refers to the classification prevalent during the period the question might have originated from, where these items were standard non-plan revenue expenditures. The new classification is between Revenue and Capital expenditure, and within that, expenditure is classified by function. However, the nature of these specific items (Interest Payments, Subsidies, Pensions as revenue; Loans & Advances as capital) remains consistent across classifications.

14. The Central Administrative Tribunal adjudicates disputes with respect

The Central Administrative Tribunal adjudicates disputes with respect to the recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed

to public services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union
members of the defence forces
officers and servants of the Supreme Court or of any High Court in India

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1 and 2

1 only

2 only

2 and 3

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UPSC CAPF – 2013

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The correct answer is B) 1 only. The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) adjudicates disputes regarding service matters of persons appointed to public services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union, but specifically excludes members of defence forces and staff of the Supreme Court/High Courts.

– Statement 1: The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was established under the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985. Its jurisdiction covers recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union. This statement is correct.
– Statement 2: Section 2 of the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, explicitly states that the Act does not apply to persons who are members of the naval, military, or air forces or of any other armed forces of the Union. Therefore, the CAT does not adjudicate disputes for members of the defence forces. This statement is incorrect.
– Statement 3: Section 2 of the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, also explicitly states that the Act does not apply to officers and servants of the Supreme Court or of any High Court. Therefore, the CAT does not adjudicate disputes for officers and servants of the Supreme Court or High Courts. This statement is incorrect.

The CAT is a specialized quasi-judicial body aimed at providing speedy and effective redressal of grievances to central government employees. Its jurisdiction extends to All India Services, Central Civil Services, Civil posts under the Union, and civilian employees of defence services.

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15. Consider the following statements: A person who is not a member of e

Consider the following statements:

A person who is not a member of either House of the Parliament can be appointed a member of the Council of Ministers.
Anyone can be appointed as a member of the Council of Ministers for a maximum period of three years.
A person shall not be less than 25 years of age in order to become a minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1, 2 and 3

1 only

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

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UPSC CAPF – 2013

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The correct answer is C) 1 and 3 only. Statement 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect.

– Statement 1: Article 75(5) of the Constitution states that a person who is not a member of either House of Parliament can be appointed as a Minister, but they must become a member of either House within a period of six consecutive months. If they fail to do so, they shall cease to be a Minister at the expiration of that period. Thus, a non-member *can be appointed* as a member of the Council of Ministers. This statement is correct.
– Statement 2: The maximum period for which a non-member can continue as a Minister without becoming a member of Parliament is six months, not three years. This statement is incorrect.
– Statement 3: To become a Minister and continue beyond six months, a person must become a Member of Parliament. The minimum age requirement for being a Member of the Lok Sabha is 25 years (Article 84(b)). While the minimum age for Rajya Sabha is 30, a person can qualify to be an MP by meeting the Lok Sabha age criteria. Thus, effectively, to be able to become a member of Parliament (specifically Lok Sabha) and thereby continue as a minister, one must be at least 25 years of age. This statement is correct in this context.

Ministers are collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha). This underscores the importance of ministers being members of Parliament, particularly the Lok Sabha, or becoming members promptly after appointment.

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16. Consider the following statements regarding termination of sitting of

Consider the following statements regarding termination of sitting of a House:
1. Only the House of the People is subject to dissolution.
2. The powers of dissolution and prorogation are exercised by the President on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
3. The power to adjourn the daily sittings of the House of the People and the Council of States belongs to the Speaker and the Chairman respectively.
4. The Parliament cannot be dissolved as it is a permanent chamber.
Which of the statements given above are correct?

1, 2 and 3

2, 3 and 4

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 4

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The correct answer is A) 1, 2 and 3. Statements 1, 2, and 3 correctly describe aspects of the termination of sittings or the life of a House, while statement 4 is incorrect.

– Statement 1: The Lok Sabha (House of the People) is subject to dissolution at the end of its five-year term or earlier by the President. The Rajya Sabha (Council of States) is a permanent house and is not subject to dissolution. This statement is correct.
– Statement 2: The powers of dissolution (terminating the life of the Lok Sabha) and prorogation (terminating a session) are exercised by the President. Conventionally, the President acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister in exercising these powers. This statement is correct.
– Statement 3: Adjournment is the suspension of the business of a House for a specified time, which may be hours, days, or weeks. The power to adjourn the daily sittings of the House of the People and the Council of States rests with their respective presiding officers, the Speaker and the Chairman. This statement is correct.
– Statement 4: Parliament consists of the President, the Lok Sabha, and the Rajya Sabha. While the Rajya Sabha is a permanent chamber, the Lok Sabha is dissolved periodically. Therefore, the Parliament *as a whole* is not a permanent chamber in the sense that one of its constituent houses is subject to dissolution and reconstitution through elections. This statement is incorrect.

There are four ways a sitting/session of a House can be terminated: Adjournment (by Presiding Officer), Adjournment Sine Die (by Presiding Officer, terminating a sitting without fixing a date for the next meeting), Prorogation (by the President, terminating a session), and Dissolution (by the President, terminating the life of the Lok Sabha).

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17. A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a m

A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of the Parliament if she/he
1. holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State, other than an office exempted by the Parliament by law
2. is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court
3. remains absent from all meetings of the House for a period of 60 days without the permission of the House

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1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

1 and 3 only

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UPSC CAPF – 2013

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The correct answer is C) 1, 2 and 3. All three conditions listed can result in a person being disqualified for being chosen as, or for being, a member of either House of Parliament.

– Statement 1: Article 102(1)(a) of the Constitution states that a person shall be disqualified if they hold any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State, other than an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder. This statement is correct.
– Statement 2: Article 102(1)(b) states that a person shall be disqualified if they are of unsound mind and stand so declared by a competent court. This statement is correct.
– Statement 3: Article 101(4) of the Constitution states that if a member of either House of Parliament is for a period of sixty days absent from all meetings thereof without the permission of the House, the House may declare his seat vacant. While this provision is under “Vacation of Seats” (Article 101) rather than “Disqualifications for Membership” (Article 102), the result of the seat being declared vacant is that the person is no longer able to *be* a member. The question asks for conditions for “being chosen as, and for being, a member”. Losing one’s seat due to absence effectively disqualifies a person from *being* a member. Therefore, within the context of disqualification for continuing membership, this statement is considered correct.

Other grounds for disqualification under Article 102 include being an undischarged insolvent, not being a citizen of India or having voluntarily acquired citizenship of a foreign state, or being disqualified by or under any law made by Parliament (like the Representation of the People Act, 1951, which includes disqualifications for electoral offences, corruption, conviction for certain crimes, etc.).

18. Which of the following statements regarding the powers of the Speaker

Which of the following statements regarding the powers of the Speaker of the House of the People is/are correct?
1. The Speaker’s conduct in regulating the procedure of maintaining order in the House will not be subject to the jurisdiction of any court.
2. Besides presiding over his/her own House, the Speaker possesses certain powers like presiding over a joint sitting of the two Houses of the Parliament.
3. While a resolution for his/her removal is under consideration, the Speaker shall preside but shall have no right to speak, and shall have no right of vote.

1, 2 and 3

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 only

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UPSC CAPF – 2013

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The correct answer is B) 1 and 2 only. Statements 1 and 2 regarding the Speaker’s powers are correct, while statement 3 is incorrect.

– Statement 1: The conduct of the Speaker in regulating the procedure and maintaining order in the House is protected from judicial scrutiny. Article 122 of the Constitution states that the validity of any proceedings in Parliament shall not be called in question on the ground of any alleged irregularity of procedure, and no officer of Parliament (like the Speaker) in whom powers are vested for regulating procedure or conduct of business shall be subject to the jurisdiction of any court in respect of the exercise of those powers. This statement is correct.
– Statement 2: Article 118(4) of the Constitution provides that the Speaker of the House of the People shall preside over a joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament. This statement is correct.
– Statement 3: Article 96 of the Constitution states that while a resolution for the removal of the Speaker is under consideration, the Speaker shall *not* preside at the sitting of the House, but shall have the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in, the proceedings of the House. The Speaker shall be entitled to vote *only in the first instance* on such resolution or on any other matter during such proceedings, but not in the case of an equality of votes. This contradicts the statement that the Speaker shall preside and have no right to speak or vote. This statement is incorrect.

The Speaker is the principal spokesperson of the House and represents its collective voice. The Speaker’s office is one of great dignity and authority. The Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members and holds office during the life of the Lok Sabha, unless they resign or are removed.

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19. A bill is deemed to be a ‘Money Bill’ if it contains only provisions d

A bill is deemed to be a ‘Money Bill’ if it contains only provisions dealing with

1. the imposition, alteration or regulation of any tax
2. the regulation of the borrowing of money by the government
3. the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India
4. the provision for imposition of fines or other penalties, or for the demand or payment of fees for licenses or fees for services rendered

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 2 only

3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

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UPSC CAPF – 2013

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The correct answer is A) 1, 2 and 3 only. The definition of a ‘Money Bill’ is provided in Article 110 of the Constitution of India.

– Article 110(1) defines a Money Bill as a Bill that contains *only* provisions dealing with matters such as:
1. the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax. (Statement 1)
2. the regulation of the borrowing of money or the giving of any guarantee by the Government of India, or the amendment of the law with respect to any financial obligations undertaken or to be undertaken by the Government of India. (Statement 2)
3. the custody of the Consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of India, the payment of moneys into or the withdrawal of moneys from any such Fund. (Statement 3)
4. the appropriation of moneys out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
5. the declaring of any expenditure to be expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India or the increasing of the amount of any such expenditure.
6. the receipt of money on account of the Consolidated Fund of India or the public account of India or the custody or issue of such money or the audit of the accounts of the Union or of a State.
7. any matter incidental to any of the matters specified in sub-clauses (a) to (f).
– Article 110(2) explicitly states that a Bill shall not be deemed to be a Money Bill by reason only that it provides for:
– the imposition of fines or other pecuniary penalties.
– the demand or payment of fees for licences or fees for services rendered. (Statement 4 falls under this exclusion)
– the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax by any local authority or body for local purposes.

The Speaker of the House of the People certifies whether a Bill is a Money Bill. The decision of the Speaker is final. Money Bills can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha. The Rajya Sabha has limited powers regarding a Money Bill; it can only suggest amendments, which the Lok Sabha may or may not accept, within a period of fourteen days.

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20. Which of the following are the privileges of the House of the People c

Which of the following are the privileges of the House of the People collectively?

1. The right to publish debates and proceedings, and the right to restrain publication by others
2. The right to exclude others—to exclude strangers from the galleries anytime
3. The right to punish members and outsiders for breach of its privileges
4. What is said or done within the walls of the Parliament, however, can be inquired into in a court of law

1, 2 and 3 only

1 and 2 only

3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

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The correct answer is (A) 1, 2 and 3 only.

– Parliamentary privileges are special rights, immunities, and exemptions enjoyed by the Houses of Parliament, their members, and their committees collectively and individually.
– Statement 1: The House has the right to publish its reports, debates, and proceedings and also to restrain publication by others. This is a collective privilege.
– Statement 2: The House has the power to exclude strangers from its proceedings and hold a secret sitting in case of an important matter. This is a collective privilege.
– Statement 3: The House has the power to punish its members as well as outsiders for breach of its privileges or its contempt. This power is essential to maintain the dignity and authority of the House. This is a collective privilege.
– Statement 4: Article 105(2) provides that no member of Parliament shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him in Parliament or any committee thereof. This grants immunity from judicial scrutiny regarding things said or done in the House during its proceedings. Therefore, what is said or done *within the walls* of Parliament cannot ordinarily be inquired into in a court of law. This statement is incorrect as it describes the opposite of the privilege/immunity.

– Collective privileges include: right to regulate its internal affairs, right to publish debates, right to exclude strangers, right to punish for contempt.
– Individual privileges include: freedom of speech in Parliament, freedom from arrest (in civil cases during session and 40 days before and after), exemption from attendance as a witness.

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