UPSC CDS-2

11. Which of the following ideas was preached by the Kherwar or Sapha Har

Which of the following ideas was preached by the Kherwar or Sapha Har movement of the 1870s?

Acceptance of the Hindu pantheonic order
Monotheism and internal social reform
Philosophy of Yoga and Mimansa
Polytheism
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The Kherwar movement, also known as the Sapha Har movement, was a socio-religious reform movement among the Santhals led by Bhagirath Manjhi starting around 1870. It primarily preached monotheism (worship of one God, identified as ‘Singh Bonga’), purity, abstinence from intoxicating drinks, and internal social reform within the Santhal community.
The movement aimed at restoring what its leaders considered to be the original, pure form of Santhal religion, free from external influences and practices like idol worship or consumption of alcohol. It emphasized devotion to a single God.
Initially, the movement was purely socio-religious, seeking purification and a return to Santhal traditions. However, over time, especially after 1880, it sometimes took on an agrarian and political character, including a no-rent campaign against zamindars, though its core ideology remained centered on religious purity and monotheism.

12. Which one of the following British officials was elevated to the posit

Which one of the following British officials was elevated to the position of Governor General after the Regulating Act of 1773?

Warren Hastings
Lord North
Mountstuart Elphinstone
Philip Francis
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The Regulating Act of 1773 is a landmark Act in the constitutional history of India. It designated the Governor of Bengal as the ‘Governor-General of Bengal’ and created an Executive Council of four members to assist him. Warren Hastings, who was already the Governor of Bengal, became the first Governor-General under this Act.
The Act unified the three presidencies of Bengal, Madras, and Bombay under the Governor-General of Bengal, centralizing the administration of the East India Company’s territories in India.
The Act also established a Supreme Court at Calcutta in 1774, comprising a Chief Justice and three other judges. The first Chief Justice was Sir Elijah Impey. The Act marked the first step by the British Parliament to control and regulate the affairs of the East India Company.

13. Which one of the following amendments in the Constitution of India mad

Which one of the following amendments in the Constitution of India made a Proclamation of Emergency immune from judicial review?

39th Amendment
40th Amendment
42nd Amendment
44th Amendment
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The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, enacted during the period of National Emergency (1975-77), significantly curtailed the power of judicial review. It amended Article 352 and other related provisions to make the President’s satisfaction in declaring an emergency final and beyond judicial challenge.
The 42nd Amendment introduced clauses (4) and (5) in Article 352, which stated that the President’s decision to declare a Proclamation of Emergency and the continuation thereof shall be final and conclusive and shall not be questioned in any court on any ground.
The 44th Amendment Act, 1978, repealed the provisions introduced by the 42nd Amendment regarding the non-justiciability of the Proclamation of Emergency. It re-established that the satisfaction of the President could be questioned in a court of law on the ground of mala fide. This was a significant step in restoring the judiciary’s role in checking the executive power.

14. The Constitution of India guarantees freedom of speech and expression.

The Constitution of India guarantees freedom of speech and expression. But the freedom is subject to certain reasonable restrictions imposed by the State. These restrictions may relate to which of the following?
1 Defamation
2. Decency or morality
3. Incitement to an offence
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
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Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution of India guarantees the right to freedom of speech and expression. However, this freedom is not absolute and is subject to reasonable restrictions that can be imposed by the State under Article 19(2). The grounds for these restrictions explicitly listed in Article 19(2) are: sovereignty and integrity of India, security of the state, friendly relations with foreign states, public order, decency or morality, contempt of court, defamation, and incitement to an offence.
– The question lists three potential restrictions: Defamation, Decency or morality, and Incitement to an offence.
– All three of these grounds are expressly mentioned in Article 19(2) as valid reasons for the state to impose reasonable restrictions on the freedom of speech and expression.
– The concept of ‘reasonable restrictions’ allows the state to balance the fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression with other public interests and concerns.
– The reasonableness of the restrictions is subject to judicial review.

15. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the nature

Which one of the following statements is not correct about the nature of India’s federal system?

There is no equality of representation of States in the Council of States.
Sikkim was not initially included in the Union as a full-fledged State.
Special provisions have been laid down in the Constitution of India for Andhra Pradesh under Article 371 D.
The Constitution of India enables the federal government to acquire the strength of a unitary system during emergencies.
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Let’s examine each statement:
A) There is no equality of representation of States in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha). This is correct. Representation is based on the population of states (as per the Fourth Schedule), unlike federations like the USA where states have equal representation. This reflects the asymmetric nature of Indian federalism.
B) Sikkim was not initially included in the Union as a full-fledged State. This is correct. Sikkim was granted the status of an ‘associate state’ initially by the 35th Amendment Act, 1974, before being made a full state by the 36th Amendment Act, 1975. This is a historical fact about state formation.
C) Special provisions have been laid down in the Constitution of India for Andhra Pradesh under Article 371 D. This is correct. Article 371D provides special provisions for Andhra Pradesh and Telangana regarding public employment and education. This is an example of asymmetric federalism.
D) The Constitution of India enables the federal government to acquire the strength of a unitary system during emergencies. This is correct. Articles 352, 356, and 360 provide emergency powers to the Union government, allowing it to centralize powers and control over states, effectively transforming the system into a unitary one during such periods.
All statements A, C, and D describe ongoing structural or functional aspects that are widely considered part of the ‘nature’ of India’s federal system (asymmetric representation, asymmetric provisions for states, centralizing tendency). Statement B describes a specific historical event related to the formation of the Union. While relevant to the evolution of the federation, it is arguably less a descriptor of the *nature* of the system itself compared to A, C, and D which describe its structure, differential treatment of units, and behavior during crises. In the context of asking about the “nature” of the system, a historical event of accession (B) is the least likely to be considered a fundamental defining characteristic compared to structural features (A), differential treatment (C), and operational mode in emergencies (D). Thus, B is the statement that is arguably “not correct about the nature” in the same sense as the others.
– India’s federal system is often described as ‘quasi-federal’ or ‘federal in form, unitary in spirit’.
– Key features of its nature include a strong centre, division of powers, integrated judiciary, single citizenship, appointment of governors by the centre, unequal representation in Rajya Sabha, and emergency provisions.
– Asymmetric federalism, involving special provisions for certain states (like Article 371 series), is also a characteristic feature.
– Article 371D was inserted into the Constitution by the 32nd Amendment Act, 1973.
– The process of integrating princely states and other territories like Sikkim into the Indian Union reflects the flexibility and evolving nature of the federation.

16. Which one of the following is not correct ?

Which one of the following is not correct ?

Taxes on agricultural income is a subject under the State List.
Price control is a subject under the Concurrent List.
Insurance does not come under the Union List.
'Forests' is a subject under the Concurrent List.
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The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India distributes legislative powers between the Union and the States. List I (Union List) contains subjects on which Parliament has exclusive power to make laws. List II (State List) contains subjects on which state legislatures have exclusive power. List III (Concurrent List) contains subjects on which both Parliament and state legislatures can make laws.
– Taxes on agricultural income is Entry 46 in the State List. (Correct)
– Price control is Entry 34 in the Concurrent List. (Correct)
– Insurance is Entry 47 in the Union List. Therefore, the statement “Insurance does not come under the Union List” is not correct.
– ‘Forests’ was originally in the State List but was transferred to the Concurrent List (Entry 17A) by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976. (Correct)
– The Union List has 97 subjects (originally), the State List has 66 subjects (originally), and the Concurrent List has 47 subjects (originally). The numbers have slightly changed due to amendments.
– Insurance is a subject of national importance and is regulated by the central government, placing it under the Union List.
– Other important subjects in the Union List include Defence, Banking, Currency, Railways, Posts and Telegraphs, Foreign Affairs, Atomic Energy, etc.
– Other important subjects in the State List include Public Order, Police, Public Health and Sanitation, Local Government, Land, etc.
– Other important subjects in the Concurrent List include Criminal Law, Marriage and Divorce, Education, Trade Unions, etc.

17. Which one of the following is not correct in respect of Directorate of

Which one of the following is not correct in respect of Directorate of Enforcement ?

It is a specialized financial investigation agency under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
It enforces the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999.
It enforces the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002.
It enforces the Prohibition of Benami Property Transaction Act, 1988.
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The Directorate of Enforcement (ED) is primarily responsible for enforcing two key financial laws: the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA) and the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA). While ED may investigate assets suspected to be ‘benami’ if they are linked to money laundering under PMLA, the direct enforcement of the Prohibition of Benami Property Transaction Act, 1988 (now amended and renamed) falls under the purview of the Income Tax Department and specific Benami Prohibition Units. Therefore, the statement that ED enforces the Prohibition of Benami Property Transaction Act, 1988, is not correct as its primary enforcement lies with other authorities.
– ED operates under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
– It is a specialized financial investigation agency.
– Its main mandate is to investigate violations of FEMA and offences under PMLA.
– The Prohibition of Benami Property Transaction Act, 1988 was significantly amended in 2016 and renamed as the Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Amendment Act, 2016.
– The Income Tax Department’s Benami Prohibition Units are the primary agencies tasked with enforcing the Benami Act.

18. Following the Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016

Following the Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016, the Parliament enacted quite a few GST Acts in the year 2017. Which one of the following does not fall in this category ?

The Central Goods and Services Tax Act
The Integrated Goods and Services Tax Act
The Goods and Services Tax (Compensation to States) Acts
The State Goods and Services Tax Act
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Following the Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016, which introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST), the Parliament enacted several Central GST laws in 2017. These include The Central Goods and Services Tax Act (CGST Act), The Integrated Goods and Services Tax Act (IGST Act), and The Goods and Services Tax (Compensation to States) Act. However, The State Goods and Services Tax Act (SGST Act) is enacted by the legislature of *each state* separately, not by the Parliament.
– GST in India is a dual GST model, meaning both the Centre and States levy tax on the same taxable event (supply of goods and services).
– CGST and IGST are central laws passed by Parliament.
– SGST is a state law passed by each state legislature.
– UTGST is a law passed by Parliament for Union Territories without a legislature.
– The GST (Compensation to States) Act was enacted to provide compensation to states for the loss of revenue arising on account of implementation of the GST for a period of five years, as per the recommendation of the GST Council.
– The GST Council is the governing body for GST, comprising the Union Finance Minister and state finance ministers.

19. Which one of the following is a typical example of monopolistic compet

Which one of the following is a typical example of monopolistic competition ?

Retail vegetable markets
Market for soaps
Indian Railways
Labour market for software engineers
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Monopolistic competition is a market structure characterized by many firms, differentiated products, and relatively easy entry and exit. The market for soaps fits this description well. There are numerous brands (firms), each offering a slightly differentiated product (based on fragrance, ingredients, marketing, etc.), and entry into the market is relatively easier compared to a monopoly or oligopoly.
– Key characteristics of monopolistic competition: Many sellers, product differentiation, free entry and exit, non-price competition (advertising, branding).
– Product differentiation allows firms to have some degree of market power (downward sloping demand curve), but the presence of many close substitutes limits this power.
– Retail vegetable markets are often closer to perfect competition (many sellers, relatively homogeneous product, very easy entry).
– Indian Railways is a government monopoly.
– Labour markets can vary significantly in structure, but a labour market for specific skilled professionals like software engineers might involve elements of oligopsony (few major employers) or competition, not typically monopolistic competition as understood in product markets.

20. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

List I
(Curve)		 List II
(Indication)
A. Lorenz curve 1. Inflation and employment
B. Phillips curve 2. Tax rates and tax revenue
C. Engel curve 3. Inequality in distribution of income or wealth
D. Laffer curve 4. Income and proportion of expenditure on food

Code :
A) 3 4 1 2
B) 2 1 4 3
C) 3 1 4 2
D) 2 4 1 3

3 4 1 2
2 1 4 3
3 1 4 2
2 4 1 3
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Matching the curves with their indications:
A. Lorenz curve is used to represent inequality in the distribution of income or wealth. (3)
B. Phillips curve shows the inverse relationship between the rate of inflation and the rate of unemployment in an economy. (1)
C. Engel curve describes how household expenditure on a particular good or service varies with household income. For necessary goods like food, the proportion of expenditure decreases as income rises. (4)
D. Laffer curve is a theoretical representation of the relationship between tax rates and the amount of tax revenue collected by governments. (2)
Thus, the correct matching is A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2.
– Lorenz curve: Further visually represented by the Gini coefficient.
– Phillips curve: Represents a short-run trade-off, which may not hold in the long run.
– Engel curve: Derived from Engel’s Law regarding food expenditure proportion.
– Laffer curve: Suggests that beyond a certain point, increasing tax rates may decrease tax revenue due to reduced economic activity.
– The Lorenz curve was developed by Max O. Lorenz in 1905.
– The Phillips curve was described by A. W. Phillips based on observations in the UK economy.
– Engel’s Law was formulated by Ernst Engel in the 19th century.
– The Laffer curve was popularized by economist Arthur Laffer in the 1970s.
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