UPSC CDS-2 Archives

1. Which of the following is the correct order of clouds in ascending ord

Which of the following is the correct order of clouds in ascending order (lowest to highest) of height from surface ?

1. Cirrocumulus
2. Nimbostratus
3. Cirrus
4. Altostratus

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1, 2, 4, 3

2, 4, 3, 1

3, 2, 1, 4

2, 4, 1, 3

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The correct option is D, representing the order 2, 4, 1, 3. This order corresponds to Nimbostratus, Altostratus, Cirrocumulus, and Cirrus, which is generally the ascending order of height from the surface.

– Clouds are classified based on their altitude. Low clouds are typically below 2,000 meters (6,500 ft), middle clouds between 2,000 and 6,000 meters (6,500 – 20,000 ft), and high clouds above 6,000 meters (20,000 ft).
– Nimbostratus (2) is a low-level cloud type, though it can extend vertically through the middle layer. Its base is low.
– Altostratus (4) is a middle-level cloud type.
– Cirrocumulus (1) and Cirrus (3) are high-level cloud types.
– Among the high clouds, Cirrus are generally found at the highest altitudes. Therefore, a typical ascending order is Low -> Middle -> High (Cirrocumulus) -> High (Cirrus).

Cloud classification also includes types based on appearance (e.g., stratus, cumulus, cirrus) and process (e.g., nimbus indicating precipitation). Understanding cloud types and their typical altitudes is important in meteorology and weather observation.

2. Which of the following pairs of Isolines and its properties are correc

Which of the following pairs of Isolines and its properties are correctly matched ?

1. Isonif : Snowfall
2. Isohel : Sunshine
3. Isohaline : Salinity
4. Isohypse : Cloudiness

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1, 2 and 3

2, 3 and 4

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 4

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The correct option is A because the pairs 1 (Isonif : Snowfall), 2 (Isohel : Sunshine), and 3 (Isohaline : Salinity) are correctly matched. Pair 4 (Isohypse : Cloudiness) is incorrectly matched.

– Isonif are isolines connecting points of equal snowfall.
– Isohel are isolines connecting points of equal duration of sunshine.
– Isohaline are isolines connecting points of equal salinity in water bodies, especially oceans.
– Isohypse are isolines connecting points of equal altitude or elevation above a given reference level (often mean sea level), also known as contour lines. Lines of equal cloudiness are called Isonephs.

Isolines are lines on a map, chart, or graph connecting points having the same value of a specified variable. They are crucial tools in cartography and various scientific fields for visualizing spatial distributions of data like temperature (Isotherms), pressure (Isobars), rainfall (Isohyets), etc.

3. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched ? Plateau : C

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched ?

Plateau : Continent
1. Abyssinian : Africa
2. Patagonian : Australia
3. Anatolian : Asia
4. Iberian : North America

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only

1 and 3 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

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The correct option is B because pairs 1 (Abyssinian : Africa) and 3 (Anatolian : Asia) are correctly matched, while pairs 2 (Patagonian : Australia) and 4 (Iberian : North America) are incorrectly matched.

– The Abyssinian Plateau, also known as the Ethiopian Highlands, is located in Africa.
– The Patagonian Plateau is located in South America (Argentina).
– The Anatolian Plateau forms the central part of Turkey, which is in Asia.
– The Iberian Plateau (Meseta Central) is located in Europe, covering a large part of Spain and Portugal.

Plateaus are large areas of flat-topped high land. They are significant geographical features found on continents across the world, often rich in mineral resources or important for agriculture and climate. Understanding the location of major plateaus is fundamental to world geography.

4. Which one of the following statements about Indian Maritime University

Which one of the following statements about Indian Maritime University (IMU) is not correct ?

It was established through an Act of Parliament as a Central University.

It was established primarily to support the Indian Navy.

It is located in Chennai.

It was established to extend the benefits of knowledge and skill for development of individuals and society by associating closely with local, regional and national issues of development.

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The Indian Maritime University (IMU) was established as a Central University by the Indian Maritime University Act, 2008 (Act 22 of 2008). It is headquartered in Chennai. Its objective is to facilitate and promote maritime studies, training, and research. While it contributes to the pool of skilled personnel who may join the Indian Navy, its primary purpose as defined by the Act is much broader, encompassing education and training for the entire maritime sector, including merchant marine, port management, shipbuilding, and related fields. Therefore, the statement that it was established *primarily* to support the Indian Navy is incorrect.

– IMU is a Central University under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping, and Waterways.
– It integrates several existing maritime training institutions.
– Its focus is on comprehensive maritime education and training.

Statement A is correct as it was established by an Act of Parliament as a Central University. Statement C is correct as its headquarters are in Chennai. Statement D correctly reflects its broad objective of extending benefits of knowledge and skill for development by associating with national issues related to the maritime sector.

5. Any question pertaining to the disqualification of a member of the Lok

Any question pertaining to the disqualification of a member of the Lok Sabha on the ground of defection is decided by :

The President of India

The Speaker of the Lok Sabha

The Supreme Court of India

The concerned Political Party

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According to the provisions of the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution of India (Anti-Defection Law), any question regarding the disqualification of a member of a House on the ground of defection is decided by the presiding officer of the House. For the Lok Sabha, the presiding officer is the Speaker. For the Rajya Sabha, it is the Chairman.

– The Tenth Schedule was added by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985.
– It lays down the grounds for disqualification on account of defection.
– The decision of the Speaker (or Chairman) is subject to judicial review, as established by the Supreme Court in the Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu case (1992).

Neither the President of India, the Supreme Court directly (in the first instance), nor the concerned political party is the deciding authority on disqualification under the Tenth Schedule. The power is vested solely in the presiding officer of the respective House, although their decision can be challenged in the courts.

6. Which among the following Fundamental Rights is not suspended when an

Which among the following Fundamental Rights is not suspended when an Emergency is declared ?

Protection in respect of conviction for offences

Right to constitutional remedies

Right to move freely throughout the territory of India

Equality before law

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When an Emergency is declared under Article 352, the Fundamental Rights under Article 19 are automatically suspended (Article 358). The President can suspend the right to move any court for the enforcement of other Fundamental Rights (except Articles 20 and 21) by an order under Article 359. Articles 20 (Protection in respect of conviction for offences) and 21 (Protection of life and personal liberty) are explicitly protected and cannot be suspended during a National Emergency. Option A, “Protection in respect of conviction for offences,” is guaranteed by Article 20.

– Article 358 deals with the suspension of rights conferred by Article 19.
– Article 359 deals with the suspension of the enforcement of other Fundamental Rights.
– The 44th Amendment Act, 1978, added the provision that Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended during any emergency.

Option B (Right to constitutional remedies – Article 32) can be suspended by a Presidential order under Article 359, meaning one cannot move the Supreme Court to enforce other rights that might be suspended. Option C (Right to move freely – part of Article 19) is automatically suspended under Article 358 during a National Emergency declared on grounds of war or external aggression, or suspended by order on grounds of armed rebellion. Option D (Equality before law – Article 14) can be suspended under Article 359.

7. Which one of the following amendments to the Constitution of India has

Which one of the following amendments to the Constitution of India has introduced reservations in education and in public employment for people from the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) of society ?

The Constitution (101st Amendment) Act

The Constitution (102nd Amendment) Act

The Constitution (122nd Amendment) Act

The Constitution (103rd Amendment) Act

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The Constitution (103rd Amendment) Act, 2019, introduced reservations in education and public employment for the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) of society. It amended Articles 15 and 16 of the Constitution by inserting clause (6) in both articles, empowering the state to make special provisions for the advancement of any economically weaker sections of citizens, including reservations up to 10% in educational institutions and government jobs.

– This amendment provided a basis for reservation solely on economic criteria, separate from existing reservations based on social and educational backwardness (for SCs, STs, and OBCs).
– The reservation is in addition to the existing reservations.
– The criteria for defining EWS are notified by the government.

The 101st Amendment Act introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST). The 102nd Amendment Act granted constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC). The 122nd Amendment Bill was related to GST but it was not passed as the Act. The 103rd Amendment is specifically for EWS reservation.

8. Which one of the following statements about Mission Indradhanush, laun

Which one of the following statements about Mission Indradhanush, launched by the Government of India in 2014, is correct ?

It relates to provision for Child Health Screening and Early Intervention Services.

It meets the diverse health needs of adolescents.

It aims to increase the full immunisation coverage for children.

Its objective is to achieve universal access to equitable, affordable, and quality healthcare services.

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Mission Indradhanush was launched by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India in December 2014. Its primary aim is to increase the full immunization coverage of children and pregnant women against seven vaccine-preventable diseases (diphtheria, whooping cough, tetanus, polio, tuberculosis, measles, and Hepatitis B). It focuses on increasing coverage in areas with low immunization rates.

– The mission targets partial or unvaccinated children and pregnant women.
– It uses a systematic approach involving special immunization drives in identified areas.
– Subsequent phases and intensifications (e.g., Intensified Mission Indradhanush) have been launched to accelerate progress.

Option A describes the Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram (RBSK). Option B describes the Rashtriya Kishor Swasthya Karyakram (RKSK). Option D is a broad statement related to universal health coverage, which is a larger goal reflected in policies like the National Health Policy, but not the specific defined objective of Mission Indradhanush.

9. Which of the following statements about the Panchayats in India, as pe

Which of the following statements about the Panchayats in India, as per the Constitution of India is/are correct ?

1. There is a provision for reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
2. Panchayats are not authorised to collect taxes.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

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Statement 1 is correct. Article 243D of the Constitution, inserted by the 73rd Amendment Act, mandates the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in every Panchayat at all three levels (village, intermediate, and district) in proportion to their population in the Panchayat area. It also provides for reservation of not less than one-third of the total number of seats for women.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 243H empowers the Legislature of a State to endow Panchayats with the power to levy, collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls and fees in accordance with such procedure and subject to such limits as may be specified in the law. Thus, Panchayats are authorised to collect taxes through state legislation.

– Part IX of the Constitution, added by the 73rd Amendment Act (1992), provides the constitutional framework for Panchayats.
– Panchayats are local self-governing bodies at the village, intermediate, and district levels.
– The 73rd Amendment aims to decentralise power and ensure representation for weaker sections and women.

Article 243G lists the powers, authority, and responsibilities of Panchayats, which include implementing schemes for economic development and social justice. The State Legislature determines the specific powers delegated to Panchayats, including their financial powers like taxation.

10. The landmark Supreme Court judgment in the case Subhash Sharma v. Unio

The landmark Supreme Court judgment in the case Subhash Sharma v. Union of India (1991) refers to which one of the following basic features of the Constitution of India ?

Judicial Review

Rule of Law

Free and fair elections

Fundamental Rights

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The judgment in Subhash Sharma v. Union of India (1991) dealt with the appointment of judges and the interpretation of Article 124(2) of the Constitution concerning the President’s obligation to consult the Chief Justice of India. The court held that the Chief Justice’s opinion was entitled to great weight and the executive could not arbitrarily disregard it. This case, while not fully establishing the collegium system (which came later in the Second Judges Case, 1993), significantly impacted the process of judicial appointments and reinforced the concept of judicial independence, which is intrinsically linked to the basic feature of Judicial Review. Judicial Review is the power of the judiciary to review actions of the legislature and executive to ensure they are in accordance with the Constitution, a power essential for maintaining the separation of powers and the independence of the judiciary.

– The case focused on the interpretation of the ‘consultation’ process for appointing judges.
– It emphasized the need for the executive to give due regard to the Chief Justice’s recommendation.
– The ruling contributed to the evolution of the judicial appointments process, leading towards greater judicial autonomy in this matter.

While the case touches upon the principles underlying the Rule of Law (non-arbitrariness) and indirectly supports the framework protecting Fundamental Rights, its primary impact and subject matter were directly related to the functioning and independence of the judiciary itself, which is best encapsulated by the concept of Judicial Review within the given options, as Judicial Review is the mechanism through which judicial independence and the constitutional scheme are enforced.