41. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?

Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?

There is an independent judiciary in India.
Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.
The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.
It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2017
The correct answer is D. Indian federalism is characterized by features such as an independent judiciary, a clear division of powers between the Centre and States (listed in the Seventh Schedule), and unequal representation of states in the Rajya Sabha (based on population). However, it is not a result of an agreement among the federating units; India is described as a ‘Union of States’, indicating that the states did not come together to form the federation but rather the Union is indissoluble.
– Indian federation is not formed by an agreement among states.
– India is a ‘Union of States’.
– Key features of Indian federalism include distribution of powers, independent judiciary, and bicameralism (with unequal representation in Rajya Sabha).
The Indian federal system is often described as ‘quasi-federal’ or ‘federal in form but unitary in spirit’. Unlike classic federations like the USA, states in India have no right to secede, and the boundaries of states can be altered by Parliament.

42. Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the pr

Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government:

An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.
A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.
A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.
A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2017
The correct option is C.
The Cabinet form of Government, also known as the Westminster model or parliamentary democracy, is based on the principle of collective responsibility. This means that the Council of Ministers (Cabinet) is collectively responsible to the popular house of the legislature (Lok Sabha in India). They sink and swim together. If the Lok Sabha passes a no-confidence motion, the entire Council of Ministers must resign. This mechanism ensures that the government is accountable to the elected representatives of the people, and through them, to the people themselves.
Option A is incorrect; while a responsible government might face less arbitrary criticism, minimizing criticism is not the underlying principle. Option B might be a consequence of coordinated government action but not the core principle. Option D is incorrect; the principle is collective responsibility to the legislature, not strengthening the head of government’s individual hold. Collective responsibility is the hallmark distinguishing the Cabinet system from others like the Presidential system.

43. Which of the following is geographically closest to Great Nicobar?

Which of the following is geographically closest to Great Nicobar?

Sumatra
Borneo
Java
Sri Lanka
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2017
The correct option is A.
Great Nicobar Island is the southernmost island of the Nicobar Islands chain. To its southeast, across the Great Channel (or Six Degree Channel), lies the island of Sumatra, which is part of Indonesia. The distance between Great Nicobar and Sumatra is relatively short compared to the other options.
Borneo is located much further to the east of Sumatra and the Nicobar Islands. Java is located southeast of Sumatra, also further away. Sri Lanka is located far to the west of India’s mainland and is separated from India by the Palk Strait, geographically very distant from the Nicobar Islands. The geographical proximity of Great Nicobar to Sumatra highlights the strategic location of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands in the Indian Ocean.

44. Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation

Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2. Abolition of untouchability
3. Protection of the interests of minorities
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1, 2 and 4 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1 and 4 only
1, 2, 3 and 4
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2017
The correct option is C (1 and 4 only).
The Right against Exploitation is enshrined in Articles 23 and 24 of the Constitution of India.
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour: This is explicitly covered under Article 23.
2. Abolition of untouchability: This is covered under Article 17, which falls under the Right to Equality (Articles 14-18), not the Right against Exploitation.
3. Protection of the interests of minorities: This is covered under Articles 29 and 30, which fall under Cultural and Educational Rights, not the Right against Exploitation.
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines: This is explicitly covered under Article 24, which prohibits the employment of children below 14 years of age in factories, mines, or any other hazardous employment.
Therefore, only statements 1 and 4 are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation.
The Right against Exploitation aims to prevent the exploitation of the weaker sections of society. Article 23 prohibits practices like bonded labour, slavery, and forced labour. Article 24 protects children from dangerous forms of employment.

45. Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the pro

Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State?
1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
3. Dissolution of the local bodies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2017
The correct option is B (1 and 3 only).
President’s Rule under Article 356 is imposed when the constitutional machinery in a state fails.
1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly: The President can either suspend or dissolve the State Legislative Assembly. Suspension keeps the Assembly inoperative but not terminated, while dissolution terminates it permanently. Since dissolution is one option and not mandatory (suspension is the other), it is *not necessarily* a consequence.
2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State: When President’s Rule is imposed, the state government (headed by the Chief Minister and their Council of Ministers) is dismissed, and the executive powers of the state are exercised by the Central government through the Governor. This is a *necessary* consequence.
3. Dissolution of the local bodies: President’s Rule impacts the State government and Legislature. Local bodies like Panchayats and Municipalities function under state laws enacted under Parts IX and IXA of the Constitution, but President’s Rule at the state level does not automatically necessitate the dissolution of these constitutionally established local self-governments. This is *not necessarily* a consequence.
During President’s Rule, the President assumes to himself all or any of the functions of the State Government, and all or any of the powers vested in or exercisable by the Governor or anybody or authority in the State other than the Legislature of the State. He may also make incidental or consequential provisions necessary for giving effect to the Proclamation.

46. Recently there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from th

Recently there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites?

Corbett National Park
Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary
Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
Sariska National Park
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2017
The correct option is B.
For many years, there has been a proposal and considerable discussion, including legal proceedings in the Supreme Court, regarding the translocation of some Gir lions from their sole habitat in Gujarat to a second, alternative site to establish a separate population. This is primarily a conservation strategy to mitigate risks from epidemics, natural disasters, or genetic issues affecting a single population. The site identified and widely debated for this translocation is Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary in Madhya Pradesh.
The translocation plan has faced delays due to various reasons, including resistance from the state of Gujarat and legal challenges. Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary was specifically developed with infrastructure for receiving lions, even before the Supreme Court mandated the translocation in 2013. While the translocation of lions from Gujarat to Kuno is still pending for conservation reasons, Kuno Palpur has recently received African Cheetahs as part of a separate reintroduction project.

47. Consider the following statements: 1. Tax revenue as a percent of GD

Consider the following statements:

  • 1. Tax revenue as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
  • 2. Fiscal deficit as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2017
The correct option is D, as neither statement 1 nor statement 2 is correct.
Both statements claim a “steadily increased” trend over the last decade (referring to the decade prior to the question’s likely year, e.g., 2003-2013).
1. Tax revenue as a percent of GDP: India’s tax-to-GDP ratio has historically fluctuated based on economic cycles, policy changes (like tax reforms), and collection efficiency. While there have been efforts to increase it, it did not show a *steady* increase over a full decade; there were ups and downs, including a dip after the 2008 global financial crisis.
2. Fiscal deficit as a percent of GDP: Governments aim to manage and often reduce the fiscal deficit as a percentage of GDP for macroeconomic stability. While stimulus measures or economic slowdowns can lead to temporary increases, a *steady* increase over a decade is not a typical pattern or policy goal and generally has not happened in the Indian context; it fluctuates based on budgetary policies and economic conditions.
Economic indicators like tax-to-GDP ratio and fiscal deficit are influenced by numerous factors and rarely exhibit a strictly ‘steady’ trend over a long period like a decade. Analyzing specific government budgets and economic reports from the relevant period would confirm the non-steady nature of these trends.

48. With reference to Indian freedom struggle, consider the following even

With reference to Indian freedom struggle, consider the following events :

  • 1. Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy
  • 2. Quit India Movement launched
  • 3. Second Round Table Conference

What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events ?

1-2-3
2-1-3
3-2-1
3-1-2
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2017
The correct option is C, representing the chronological sequence 3-2-1.
The events occurred in the following years:
1. Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy (RIN Mutiny): February 1946
2. Quit India Movement launched: August 1942
3. Second Round Table Conference: September-December 1931
Arranging them chronologically from earliest to latest: 3 (1931), then 2 (1942), then 1 (1946). This gives the sequence 3-2-1.
The Round Table Conferences (1930-1932) were a series of peace conferences organized by the British Government and Indian political personalities to discuss constitutional reforms in India. The Quit India Movement was a major civil disobedience movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi during World War II demanding an end to British Rule. The RIN Mutiny was an armed uprising of Indian sailors against British rule in the Royal Indian Navy.

49. In India, Judicial Review implies

In India, Judicial Review implies

the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.
the power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to by the President.
the power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases.
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2017
The correct option is A.
Judicial Review in India refers to the power of the Supreme Court and the High Courts to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive orders of both the Central and State governments. If they find that a law or order violates the provisions of the Constitution, they can declare it illegal, unconstitutional, and invalid (null and void).
Judicial review is considered a basic feature of the Constitution of India. It allows the judiciary to act as the guardian of the Constitution and protect the fundamental rights of the citizens. Option B is incorrect as courts generally do not question the ‘wisdom’ or policy aspects of laws, only their legality and constitutionality. Option C is incorrect as review happens *after* enactment. Option D describes the power of the judiciary to review its own judgments, which is a different aspect from reviewing laws and executive orders for constitutionality.

50. In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under Schedul

In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, what does it imply ?

It enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger.
It no longer exists in the wild, a few individuals are under captive protection; and now it is impossible to prevent its extinction.
It is endemic to a particular region of India.
Both (b) and (c) stated above are correct in this context.
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2017
The correct option is A.
The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, provides for the protection of India’s wildlife. Schedule I lists species that are granted absolute protection and prohibits hunting them. The penalties for offenses related to these species are the highest. The tiger is also listed under Schedule I. Therefore, a species of tortoise declared protected under Schedule I enjoys the same level of absolute protection as the tiger.
The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, has six schedules. Schedule I and Part II of Schedule II provide absolute protection, Schedule III and Schedule IV provide protection with less severe penalties, Schedule V lists vermin (animals that can be hunted), and Schedule VI lists prohibited plants. Listing under Schedule I signifies the highest conservation priority and legal protection.