UPSC IAS Archives

1. With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the foll

With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements:

Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

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UPSC IAS – 2013

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Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct regarding the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA).

NALSA’s primary objective is to provide free and competent legal services to eligible weaker sections of society to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities. It is the apex body for legal aid services in India. NALSA also lays down policies and principles for making legal services available and frames the most effective and economical schemes for legal services.

NALSA is constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. The Chief Justice of India is the Patron-in-Chief, and a sitting or retired Supreme Court judge is the Executive Chairman. NALSA supervises and evaluates the implementation of legal aid programs and schemes conducted by the State Legal Services Authorities (SLSAs). Statement 2 correctly describes one of the functions of NALSA, which is to issue guidelines to SLSAs for implementing legal aid schemes.

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2. Consider the following statements: The Chairman and the Deputy Chair

Consider the following statements:

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The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

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UPSC IAS – 2013

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The correct answer is B) 2 only. Statement 1 is incorrect, and statement 2 is correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is the Vice-President of India (Article 64), who is *not* a member of the Rajya Sabha. However, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is elected from amongst the *members* of the Rajya Sabha (Article 89). Thus, the Deputy Chairman *is* a member of the House. Statement 2 is correct. In the election of the President, only elected members of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States and Union Territories vote (Article 54). Nominated members do not vote. However, in the election of the Vice-President, the Electoral College consists of members of both Houses of Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha), which includes both elected and nominated members (Article 66).

The Vice-President, while not a member of the Rajya Sabha, can participate in its proceedings (except voting, unless there is a tie). The Deputy Chairman performs the duties of the Chairman in case of absence or when the Vice-President acts as President. The different electoral colleges for President and Vice-President are specified in the Constitution.

3. Consider the following statements: National Development Council is a

Consider the following statements:

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National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

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UPSC IAS – 2013

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The correct answer is B) 2 and 3 only. Statement 1 is incorrect, while statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Development Council (NDC) was an apex body that guided the Planning Commission and approved its final plans. It was established by an executive resolution in 1952 and comprised the Prime Minister (Chairman), Chief Ministers of all states, Union Cabinet Ministers, and members of the Planning Commission. It was not an organ *of* the Planning Commission but rather a body overseeing it. (Note: Both Planning Commission and NDC have been replaced by NITI Aayog since 2015). Statement 2 is correct. “Economic and Social Planning” is listed as Entry 20 in List III (Concurrent List) of the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution, meaning both the Union and State governments can legislate on this subject. Statement 3 is correct. Article 243G of the Constitution (introduced by the 73rd Amendment) mandates that state legislatures may endow Panchayats with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as institutions of self-government, including the preparation of plans for economic development and social justice. Schedule Eleven lists subjects for which Panchayats are responsible for planning and implementation.

The inclusion of Economic and Social Planning in the Concurrent List reflects India’s approach to planned development involving both central and state participation. The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments (1992) constitutionalized local self-government bodies (Panchayats and Municipalities) and assigned them specific responsibilities, including planning for development at the local level.

4. Consider the following statements: 1. The Council of Ministers in th

Consider the following statements:

1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
2. The Union Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President of India.
3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President the proposals for legislation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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1 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2013

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The correct answer is B) 2 and 3 only. Statement 1 is incorrect, while statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect because the Council of Ministers in the Centre is collectively responsible to the *Lok Sabha* (House of the People), not the entire Parliament (Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha). This is a fundamental principle of parliamentary democracy as enshrined in Article 75(3) of the Constitution. Statement 2 is correct as per Article 75(2) of the Constitution; Union Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President, though this power is exercised on the advice of the Prime Minister. Statement 3 is correct as per Article 78(a) of the Constitution, which makes it the duty of the Prime Minister to communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the Union and proposals for legislation.

The collective responsibility to the Lok Sabha means that the Council of Ministers stays in power as long as it enjoys the confidence of the Lok Sabha. The individual responsibility of ministers to the President implies that a minister can be removed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. Article 78 outlines the duties of the Prime Minister regarding communication with the President and providing information.

5. Disguised unemployment generally means

Disguised unemployment generally means

large number of people remain unemployed

alternative employment is not available

marginal productivity of labour is zero

productivity of workers is low

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Answer is Wrong!

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UPSC IAS – 2013

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The correct answer is C) marginal productivity of labour is zero.

Disguised unemployment occurs when people appear to be employed, but their contribution to total output is negligible or zero. This means that even if these individuals are removed from the workforce, the overall production level does not decrease. Their marginal productivity of labour (the additional output produced by employing one more unit of labour) is effectively zero or very close to it. This type of unemployment is common in agriculture in developing countries, where multiple family members might work on a small plot of land even though fewer could achieve the same output.

Option A describes general unemployment. Option B explains a possible cause or consequence of disguised unemployment but not its definition. Option D describes low average productivity, which can be a result of disguised unemployment but is not the defining characteristic itself.

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6. Consider the following statements: 1. Inflation benefits the debtors

Consider the following statements:

1. Inflation benefits the debtors.
2. Inflation benefits the bond-holders.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2013

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The correct answer is A) 1 only. Statement 1 is correct, while statement 2 is incorrect.

Inflation is the decline of purchasing power of a given currency over time. When there is inflation, the real value of money decreases. Statement 1: Debtors benefit from inflation because the fixed amount of money they owe becomes less valuable in real terms when they repay it later. Statement 2: Bondholders (creditors) are typically harmed by inflation because the fixed interest payments they receive and the principal amount they get back at maturity are worth less in real terms due to the decreased purchasing power of money.

Inflation essentially redistributes wealth from creditors to debtors if the nominal interest rate is less than the inflation rate (resulting in a negative real interest rate). Fixed-income earners, savers, and people holding cash also tend to lose during periods of high inflation, while those with flexible incomes or assets that appreciate faster than inflation may benefit or be protected.

7. “Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty and the people used to be noma

“Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty and the people used to be nomadic herders.”
The above statement best describes which of the following regions?

African Savannah

Central Asian Steppe

North American Prairie

Siberian Tundra

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Answer is Wrong!

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The correct answer is B) Central Asian Steppe.

The description perfectly fits the geographical and cultural characteristics of the Central Asian Steppe. This region experiences a continental climate with extreme temperature variations between summer and winter. Rainfall is typically scanty, classifying it as a semi-arid grassland. Historically, the people of this region were largely nomadic herders due to the vast grasslands suitable for grazing livestock and the need to move in search of pasture.

African Savannah has distinct wet and dry seasons with moderate to high rainfall. North American Prairie has a temperate climate with more consistent rainfall allowing for extensive agriculture in many parts. Siberian Tundra has an arctic climate, permafrost, and low-growing vegetation, not typically supporting large-scale nomadic herding in the manner described.

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8. Consider the following crops: 1. Cotton 2. Groundnut 3. Rice 4. W

Consider the following crops:

1. Cotton
2. Groundnut
3. Rice
4. Wheat

Which of these are Kharif crops?

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1 and 4

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

2, 3 and 4

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

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UPSC IAS – 2013

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The correct answer is C) 1, 2 and 3. Cotton, Groundnut, and Rice are all Kharif crops.

Kharif crops, also known as monsoon crops, are sown at the beginning of the southwest monsoon season (typically June-July) and harvested at the end of the monsoon season (typically September-October). Rice, cotton, and groundnut are prominent examples of Kharif crops in India. Wheat is a Rabi crop, sown in winter and harvested in spring/summer.

Other examples of Kharif crops include Maize, Jowar, Bajra, Tur (Arhar), Moong, Urad, Jute, Soybean, etc. Rabi crops are sown after the monsoon (October-December) and harvested in spring (April-May); examples include Wheat, Barley, Gram, Rapeseed and Mustard, Lentil, etc. There is also a short season called Zaid during summer for crops like watermelon, cucumber, and vegetables.

9. Consider the following statements: Natural gas occurs in the Gondwan

Consider the following statements:

Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana beds.
Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma.
Dharwars are famous for petroleum.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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1 and 2 only

2 only

2 and 3 only

None

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

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UPSC IAS – 2013

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The correct answer is B) 2 only. Only statement 2 is correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect; natural gas in India is primarily found in sedimentary basins associated with tertiary rock formations and offshore areas, not significantly in the older Gondwana beds, which are known for coal. Statement 2 is correct; Kodarma in Jharkhand is historically a major mica mining region and is known for abundant mica deposits. Statement 3 is incorrect; Dharwar system rocks are very old metamorphic and sedimentary formations rich in metallic minerals like iron ore, manganese, gold, etc., not petroleum, which is found in younger sedimentary basins.

Gondwana beds represent a major geological formation containing about 98% of India’s coal reserves. Petroleum and natural gas resources are concentrated in regions like the Assam Shelf, Bombay High, Krishna-Godavari Basin, Cauvery Basin, etc. The Dharwar system is part of the Indian Shield and contains some of India’s most important mineral deposits.

10. Which of the following statements regarding laterite soils of India ar

Which of the following statements regarding laterite soils of India are correct?

They are generally red in colour.
They are rich in nitrogen and potash.
They are well-developed in Rajasthan and UP.
Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these soils.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

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1, 2 and 3

2, 3 and 4

1 and 4

2 and 3 only

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

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UPSC IAS – 2013

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The correct answer is C) 1 and 4. Statements 1 and 4 regarding laterite soils are correct, while statements 2 and 3 are incorrect.

Laterite soils are formed under conditions of high temperature and heavy rainfall, leading to intense leaching. This process removes silica but leaves behind iron and aluminium oxides, which give the soil its characteristic red colour (Statement 1). These soils are generally poor in nutrients like nitrogen, potash, lime, and organic matter (Statement 2 incorrect). They are found in specific regions experiencing such climate, primarily in the Western and Eastern Ghats, parts of southern Maharashtra, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Odisha, etc., not typically Rajasthan and UP (Statement 3 incorrect). Despite being infertile, certain crops like tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on them with appropriate fertilization (Statement 4).

Laterite soil is derived from laterite rock, which is rich in iron and aluminium. The term “laterite” is derived from the Latin word ‘later’ meaning brick, as these soils can harden significantly when dried and are often used for building purposes. Tea and coffee are also important crops grown in regions with laterite soils.