1. Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship

Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty ?

If there are more laws, there is less liberty.
If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.
If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2018
The correct answer is B.
The most appropriate relationship between law and liberty is that laws are necessary for the existence and protection of liberty. Without laws, there would be chaos and insecurity, where individuals would be subject to the arbitrary will or force of others, making true liberty impossible. Laws establish order, define rights, and provide a framework within which individuals can exercise their freedoms securely.
Philosophers like John Locke argued that while laws can restrict absolute freedom, they are essential for securing liberty by protecting individuals from harm by others and by the state itself (when the state acts arbitrarily). The concept of “Rule of Law” emphasizes that liberty thrives under a system where everyone, including the government, is subject to and protected by known and stable laws. Option A is partially true in that excessive or unjust laws can curtail liberty, but it doesn’t capture the fundamental necessity of law for liberty’s existence.

2. Consider the following statements : 1. The Speaker of the Legislati

Consider the following statements :

  • 1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.
  • 2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2018
Statement 1 is correct. Article 179(a) of the Constitution of India explicitly states that a Speaker of a Legislative Assembly shall vacate his office if he ceases to be a member of the Assembly.
Statement 2 is incorrect. According to the proviso to Article 179, when a Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall not vacate his office immediately but shall continue in office until immediately before the first meeting of the Assembly after the dissolution. This provision ensures continuity in the office during the interregnum between dissolution and the meeting of the new assembly.
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha also has a similar provision under Article 94, where they do not vacate their office upon dissolution of the Lok Sabha but continue until immediately before the first meeting of the new House. This continuity is important for parliamentary processes and the administration of the legislature.

3. In the Federation established by The Government of India Act of 1935,

In the Federation established by The Government of India Act of 1935, residuary powers were given to the

Federal Legislature
Governor General
Provincial Legislature
Provincial Governors
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2018
In the Federation established by The Government of India Act of 1935, powers were divided into three lists: Federal, Provincial, and Concurrent. The Act explicitly assigned the residuary powers (i.e., powers not enumerated in any of the three lists) to the Governor General.
This distribution of powers was a key feature of the federal structure envisaged by the Act. While legislative subjects were largely enumerated, the allocation of residuary powers to the Governor General (rather than the federal or provincial legislatures) reflected the centralizing tendencies and the ultimate authority retained by the British Crown through its representative.
In independent India, the Constitution places residuary powers with the Union Parliament (Article 248 read with Entry 97 of the Union List), a significant departure from the 1935 Act and a strengthening of the central government compared to the provincial governments.

4. Consider the following pairs: Towns sometimes mentioned in news

Consider the following pairs:

Towns sometimes mentioned in news Country
1. Aleppo Syria
2. Kirkuk Yemen
3. Mosul Palestine
4. Mazar-i-sharif Afghanistan

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched ?

1 and 2
1 and 4
2 and 3
3 and 4
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2018
Statement 1 is correct: Aleppo is a major city in Syria. It has been frequently in the news due to the Syrian Civil War. Statement 4 is correct: Mazar-i-Sharif is a large city in Afghanistan, important historically and strategically.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Kirkuk is a city in Iraq, known for its oil reserves and contested status, particularly between the central government and the Kurdistan Region. Yemen is a country in the Arabian Peninsula. Statement 3 is incorrect: Mosul is a major city in Iraq, historically significant and a key battleground against ISIS. Palestine is a region in the Middle East.
These cities have often been mentioned in international news due to conflicts, humanitarian crises, or political developments in their respective regions.

5. Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of “Digital India” Plan of

Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India ?

  • 1. Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did.
  • 2. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries.
  • 3. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 and 2 only
3 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2018
Statement 3 is a core aim of the Digital India program, focusing on providing universal connectivity and internet access to villages, schools, and public places (e.g., BharatNet project). Statement 2 aligns with policy discussions under Digital India’s vision for digital infrastructure and the digital economy, aiming to encourage data infrastructure development within national boundaries. Statement 1, aiming to form India’s own internet companies like China, is not a stated primary or explicit goal of the Digital India program itself, though promoting domestic innovation is part of broader economic policy. Therefore, 2 and 3 are the most accurate reflections of the program’s aims among the options.
The Digital India program has three key vision areas: Digital Infrastructure as a Core Utility to Every Citizen, Governance & Services on Demand, and Digital Empowerment of Citizens. Providing broadband connectivity to villages, public Wi-Fi, promoting e-governance, digital literacy, and building indigenous digital infrastructure are key components.
The focus on data localization and encouraging data centers within India aligns with the goal of developing robust digital infrastructure and ensuring data security and sovereignty, which falls under the broad objectives of Digital India. The program is more about enabling a digital ecosystem than specifically creating government-backed corporate giants.

6. With reference to the ‘Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (

With reference to the ‘Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA)’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  • 1. GACSA is an outcome of the Climate Summit held in Paris in 2015.
  • 2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations.
  • 3. India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 3 only
2 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2018
Statement 2 is correct. The Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA) is a voluntary alliance of diverse stakeholders. Membership does not involve any binding obligations on the part of its members. Its purpose is to facilitate dialogue, knowledge exchange, and the promotion of climate-smart agriculture practices.
Statement 1 is incorrect. GACSA was launched at the UN Climate Summit in New York in September 2014, not at the Climate Summit held in Paris in 2015 (COP21). Statement 3 is incorrect. While India is a member and participant in GACSA, it was not instrumental in its creation; the initiative was primarily led by organizations like the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the UN.
Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA) is an approach that helps guide actions to transform agri-food systems towards green and climate resilient practices. CSA aims to achieve a triple win: sustainably increasing productivity and incomes, adapting and building resilience to climate change, and reducing and/or removing greenhouse gas emissions.

7. Consider the following countries: 1. Australia 2. Canada 3. China 4. I

Consider the following countries:
1. Australia
2. Canada
3. China
4. India
5. Japan
6. USA
Which of the above are among the ‘free-trade partners’ of ASEAN?

1, 2, 4 and 5
3, 4, 5 and 6
1, 3, 4 and 5
2, 3, 4 and 6
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2018
The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) has established Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) or Comprehensive Economic Partnerships with several countries. Among the options provided, Australia, China, India, and Japan are ASEAN’s free-trade partners through various agreements such as the ASEAN-China FTA (ACFTA), ASEAN-India FTA (AIFTA), ASEAN-Japan Comprehensive Economic Partnership (AJCEP), and the ASEAN-Australia-New Zealand FTA (AANZFTA).
Countries that have FTAs with ASEAN include Australia, China, India, Japan, South Korea, and New Zealand. Additionally, these countries plus ASEAN members are part of the larger Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) agreement.
Canada and the USA do not currently have comprehensive free-trade agreements with ASEAN as a bloc, although individual ASEAN member states might have separate trade agreements with these countries.

8. In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Addit

In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’?

The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.
The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of IAEA.
The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG).
The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG.
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2018
Ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) implies that the country agrees to enhanced verification measures by the IAEA regarding its nuclear activities. In the Indian context, which has a civilian-military nuclear separation plan, the Additional Protocol applies to its declared civilian nuclear facilities. This provides the IAEA with broader access and information regarding these civilian sites to ensure nuclear material is not diverted for non-peaceful purposes. Therefore, it relates to increasing safeguards on civilian nuclear reactors.
India signed and ratified an Additional Protocol with the IAEA in 2014, which supplements its existing safeguards agreement. This protocol enhances the IAEA’s ability to verify that declared nuclear material is not diverted and that no undeclared nuclear material or activities are taking place at locations where such materials or activities are expected to be found within India’s civilian nuclear program.
India maintains a clear separation between its civilian and military nuclear programs. Military installations and activities remain outside the purview of IAEA safeguards and the Additional Protocol. Access to nuclear supplies from the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) was granted to India based on its civilian nuclear separation plan and commitments, including placing civilian facilities under IAEA safeguards, a process further strengthened by the Additional Protocol, but the Protocol itself does not automatically grant NSG membership.

9. With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the

With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements :

  • The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
  • The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2018
Statement 1 is correct. The value of the vote of an MLA is calculated based on the population of the respective state and the total number of elected MLAs in that state. Since the population and the number of MLAs vary from state to state, the value of an MLA’s vote also varies.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The value of the vote of an MP (Member of Parliament) is the same for all MPs, whether from the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha. The value is calculated by dividing the total value of votes of all MLAs of all states by the total number of elected MPs of both Houses of Parliament.
The Presidential election follows the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote, and the voting is by secret ballot. The Electoral College for the President’s election consists of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States and the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry.

10. Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct

Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct ?

A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.
A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India.
A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2018
A Money Bill is defined in Article 110(1) of the Indian Constitution. It lists specific matters that, if contained *only* in a bill, make it a Money Bill. Statement C says a Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of India. Article 110(1)(d) specifies appropriation of moneys out of the Consolidated Fund of India, not the Contingency Fund. The Contingency Fund is an emergency fund handled differently. Therefore, this statement is incorrect.
Statement A is correct as per Article 110(1)(a). Statement B is correct as per Article 110(1)(c). Statement D is correct as per Article 110(1)(b). A bill containing *only* provisions related to these matters is deemed a Money Bill.
Money Bills can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha. The Rajya Sabha has limited powers regarding Money Bills; it can suggest amendments, but the Lok Sabha is not bound by these suggestions. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha’s decision on whether a bill is a Money Bill is final.