UPSC IAS

11. International Labour Organization’s Conventions 138 and 182 are relate

International Labour Organization’s Conventions 138 and 182 are related to

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Child labour
Adaptation of agricultural practices to global climate change
Regulation of food prices and food security
Gender parity at the workplace
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The International Labour Organization (ILO) Conventions 138 (Minimum Age Convention, 1973) and 182 (Worst Forms of Child Labour Convention, 1999) are the two fundamental conventions specifically dealing with child labour.
Convention 138 establishes a minimum age for employment or work, which should not be less than the age of completion of compulsory schooling and, in any case, not less than 15 years (with exceptions for developing countries).
Convention 182 calls for immediate and effective measures to secure the prohibition and elimination of the worst forms of child labour, such as slavery, child trafficking, debt bondage, forced labour, recruitment for armed conflict, prostitution, pornography, and hazardous work.
India has ratified both ILO Conventions 138 and 182. These conventions are considered among the eight fundamental conventions of the ILO, covering core labour rights.

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12. Among the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest to t

Among the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi?

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Bengaluru
Hyderabad
Nagpur
Pune
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The correct answer is A) Bengaluru.
– The question asks which city lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi.
– Approximate longitudes of the cities are:
– Delhi: ~77.2° E
– Bengaluru: ~77.6° E
– Hyderabad: ~78.5° E
– Nagpur: ~79.1° E
– Pune: ~73.8° E
– Comparing the differences in longitude from Delhi:
– Bengaluru: |77.6 – 77.2| = 0.4°
– Hyderabad: |78.5 – 77.2| = 1.3°
– Nagpur: |79.1 – 77.2| = 1.9°
– Pune: |73.8 – 77.2| = 3.4°
– Bengaluru’s longitude (77.6° E) is closest to Delhi’s longitude (77.2° E), with a difference of only 0.4°.
Longitudes are imaginary vertical lines on Earth’s surface that run from the North Pole to the South Pole. They are used to measure positions east or west of the Prime Meridian (0° longitude). Cities on roughly the same longitude will experience local noon at approximately the same time.

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13. With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements:

With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements:

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  • BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPI-enabled bank account.
  • While a chip-pin debit card has four factors of authentication, BHIM app has only two factors of authentication.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
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The correct answer is A) 1 only.
– Statement 1 is correct. The BHIM (Bharat Interface for Money) app is based on the Unified Payments Interface (UPI). UPI allows users to link their bank accounts and make instant money transfers using a Virtual Payment Address (VPA), mobile number, account number and IFSC, or Aadhaar. Therefore, a user can transfer money to anyone who has a bank account enabled for UPI.
– Statement 2 is incorrect. Let’s analyze the factors of authentication:
– A standard chip-PIN debit card transaction at a POS machine typically involves two factors: something you have (the card) and something you know (the PIN). Online transactions often add a third factor like an OTP (something you receive). The statement claims *four* factors for a chip-PIN card, which is generally not accurate.
– The BHIM app requires unlocking the phone (often using biometrics or PIN – ‘something you are’ or ‘something you know’), logging into the app (requiring an application PIN – ‘something you know’), and then authorizing a transaction using the UPI PIN (‘something you know’). This involves multiple layers of security, effectively utilizing at least three distinct pieces of information or actions for a transaction, not just two.
BHIM was launched by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) to facilitate fast, secure, and reliable cashless payments through mobile phones. UPI has become one of the most popular digital payment methods in India.

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14. Consider the following statements : In India, State Governments do n

Consider the following statements :

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  • In India, State Governments do not have the power to auction non-coal mines.
  • Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines.
  • Rajasthan has iron ore mines.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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1 and 2
2 only
1 and 3
3 only
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The correct answer is D) 3 only.
– Statement 1 is incorrect. Under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDR Act), as amended, State Governments have the power to grant mineral concessions (Prospecting License and Mining Lease) for most non-coal major minerals. The MMDR Amendment Act, 2015, made the auction of mineral concessions for specified minerals mandatory, and the auction process is conducted by the State Governments.
– Statement 2 is incorrect. Andhra Pradesh does have gold deposits and has historically mined gold (e.g., the Kolar Gold Fields extended into AP, and there are deposits like Ramagiri). Jharkhand also has known occurrences of gold, including historical small-scale mining. Therefore, claiming they “do not have gold mines” is false.
– Statement 3 is correct. Rajasthan is one of the significant iron ore producing states in India, with deposits found in districts such as Jaipur, Udaipur, Bhilwara, and Sikar.
The MMDR Act, 1957 is the principal legislation governing the mining sector in India. The Central Government has the power to regulate minerals, but the administration of minor minerals is entirely delegated to the State Governments, while major minerals (excluding coal, petroleum, etc.) are jointly regulated, with states being the grantors of concessions under the central law.

15. India enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and

India enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to

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ILO
IMF
UNCTAD
WTO
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The correct answer is D) WTO.
– The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999, was enacted by India primarily to comply with its obligations under the Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS).
– The TRIPS Agreement, administered by the World Trade Organization (WTO), includes provisions for the protection of Geographical Indications (GIs).
– Article 22 of the TRIPS Agreement requires WTO members to provide the legal means for interested parties to prevent the use of a GI that misleads the public as to the geographical origin of a good.
– India, being a signatory to the WTO and TRIPS agreement, enacted this domestic legislation to meet these requirements and protect Indian GIs as well as facilitate the protection of foreign GIs in India.
A Geographical Indication (GI) is a sign used on products that have a specific geographical origin and possess qualities or a reputation that are due to that origin. Examples of registered Indian GIs include Darjeeling Tea, Kanchipuram Silk, Alphanso Mango, Nashik Valley Wine, etc.

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16. With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security

With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013, consider the following statements :

  • The families coming under the category of ‘below poverty line (BPL)’ only are eligible to receive subsidised food grains.
  • The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card.
  • Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a ‘take-home ration’ of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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1 and 2
2 only
1 and 3
3 only
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The correct answer is B) 2 only.
– Statement 1 is incorrect. The National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013 entitles up to 75% of the rural population and up to 50% of the urban population to receive subsidised food grains under the Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS). These beneficiaries are classified as ‘priority households’ and also include households covered under the Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY). Eligibility is determined by states/UTs based on criteria defined within the framework of the Act, and it is not limited *only* to the traditional ‘below poverty line (BPL)’ category.
– Statement 2 is correct. Section 13 of the NFSA, 2013, explicitly states that for the purpose of issuance of a ration card under the Act, the eldest woman in a household, of age eighteen years or above, shall be the head of the household.
– Statement 3 is incorrect. Section 4 of the NFSA, 2013, entitles pregnant women and lactating mothers to nutritious meals, free of cost, during pregnancy and six months after childbirth, through the local anganwadis. It also guarantees a maternity benefit of not less than `6000. However, the Act itself does not specify a “take-home ration of 1600 calories per day” as the entitlement. While supplementary nutrition programs like ICDS (often linked with NFSA implementation) may have guidelines that result in a certain caloric intake delivered through take-home rations or meals, the specific entitlement defined *in the Act* is meals and maternity benefit, not a fixed caloric take-home ration value.
The NFSA aims to provide food and nutritional security by ensuring access to adequate quantities of quality food at affordable prices. It marked a shift from a welfare-based approach to a rights-based approach to food security.

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17. The term “two-state solution” is sometimes mentioned in the news in th

The term “two-state solution” is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of

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China
Israel
Iraq
Yemen
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The correct answer is B) Israel.
– The “two-state solution” is a proposed resolution to the Israeli-Palestinian conflict.
– It envisions two separate states in the historical region of Palestine: one a Jewish state (Israel) and one a Palestinian Arab state, living side by side in peace and security.
– This framework has been the basis of most international diplomatic efforts to resolve the conflict for decades.
Other proposed solutions to the Israeli-Palestinian conflict include a one-state solution (a single state encompassing Israelis and Palestinians) or various forms of confederation. However, the two-state solution remains the most widely accepted framework by the international community, despite significant obstacles to its implementation.

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18. Consider the following statements: The Food Safety and Standards Act

Consider the following statements:

  • The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.
  • The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
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The correct answer is A) 1 only.
– Statement 1 is correct. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 is an Act of Parliament of India which consolidates the laws relating to food and establishes the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India. It repealed several earlier laws, including the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954, the Fruit Products Order, 1955, the Meat Food Products Order, 1973, etc.
– Statement 2 is incorrect. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is an autonomous statutory body established under the FSSA, 2006. While it functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, its head is a Chairperson appointed by the Central Government. The Director General of Health Services (DGHS) is a separate position within the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare and is not in charge of the FSSAI.
The FSSAI is responsible for protecting and promoting public health through the regulation and supervision of food safety. It sets standards for food products and regulates their manufacture, storage, distribution, sale, and import.

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19. Consider the following pairs: Tradition State 1. Chapchar

Consider the following pairs:

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Tradition State
1. Chapchar Kut festival — Mizoram
2. Khongjom Parba ballad — Manipur
3. Thang-Ta dance — Sikkim

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct ?

1 only
1 and 2
3 only
2 and 3
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The correct answer is B) 1 and 2.
– Pair 1: Chapchar Kut festival is a major festival celebrated in Mizoram. It is a spring festival, celebrated after the jhum cultivation fields have been cleared. This pair is correct.
– Pair 2: Khongjom Parba is a traditional ballad form from Manipur that narrates the Battle of Khongjom, fought between the Manipuri soldiers and the British in 1891. This pair is correct.
– Pair 3: Thang-Ta is a Manipuri martial art form, also performed as a dance. It originated from Manipur, not Sikkim. Sikkim has distinct dance forms like Maruni, Tamang Selo, etc. This pair is incorrect.
Chapchar Kut is one of the most important festivals of the Mizo people. Khongjom Parba is often sung with the accompaniment of Dholak. Thang-Ta is recognized as one of the eight classical dances of India by the Sangeet Natak Akademi, although its classification is sometimes debated (it is primarily a martial art).

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20. Consider the following statements: 1. As per the Right to Education

Consider the following statements:

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  • 1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education.
  • 2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
  • 3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1 and 2
2 only
1 and 3
3 only
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The correct answer is B) 2 only.
– Statement 1 is incorrect. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, 2009 (Section 23), the minimum qualifications for a person to be eligible for appointment as a teacher shall be laid down by an academic authority, authorized by the Central Government, by notification. The National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) was designated as this academic authority. State Governments must adhere to the norms laid down by the NCTE.
– Statement 2 is correct. Section 23(2) of the RTE Act mandates that a person appointed as a teacher in elementary education must pass a Teacher Eligibility Test (TET) conducted in accordance with the guidelines framed by the NCTE.
– Statement 3 is incorrect. A significant proportion of teacher education institutions in India, including B.Ed. colleges, are run by private bodies. Many are affiliated with state universities, but they are not “directly under” the state governments. Claiming more than 90% are directly under state governments is factually incorrect.
The RTE Act, 2009 aims to provide free and compulsory education to all children between the ages of 6 and 14 years. It lays down norms and standards for schools, including teacher qualifications and pupil-teacher ratios, to ensure quality education.

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