UPSC IAS Archives

1. Consider the following statements: 1. The 44th Amendment to the Con

Consider the following statements:

1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

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UPSC IAS – 2019

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Statement 2 is correct, while statement 1 is incorrect.

– Statement 1 is incorrect. The 39th Amendment Act, 1975, inserted Article 329A into the Constitution, which placed the election of the Prime Minister and the Speaker beyond judicial review. However, this article was struck down by the Supreme Court in the case of Indira Gandhi vs Raj Narain (1975). The 44th Amendment did not introduce such a provision; rather, it repealed Article 329A.
– Statement 2 is correct. The 99th Amendment Act, 2014, sought to replace the Collegium system for the appointment of Supreme Court and High Court judges with the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC). The Supreme Court, in the Fourth Judges Case (Supreme Court Advocates on Record Association vs Union of India, 2015), struck down the 99th Amendment and the NJAC Act, 2014, declaring them unconstitutional and violative of the independence of the judiciary, which is considered a basic structure of the Constitution.

The 44th Amendment Act, 1978, primarily focused on reversing some of the changes made by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 (Mini-Constitution) during the Emergency period, including restoring certain fundamental rights and limiting the power to declare national emergency. The independence of the judiciary is a cornerstone of the Indian Constitution and the Supreme Court has played a vital role in upholding it.

2. Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?

Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?

Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth's surface.

Clouds reflect back the Earth's radiation.

The Earth's surface would have low temperature on cloudy nights.

Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level.

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Answer is Wrong!

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UPSC IAS – 2019

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The correct answer is A) Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth’s surface.

Dew forms when the temperature of a surface drops below the dew point of the surrounding air, causing water vapor to condense. On a clear night, the Earth’s surface radiates thermal energy (long-wave radiation) into space. This outgoing radiation leads to significant cooling of the ground surface.
On a cloudy night, clouds act as a thermal blanket. They efficiently absorb the outgoing long-wave radiation emitted by the Earth’s surface. The absorbed energy warms the clouds, and they re-emit radiation in all directions, including back down towards the Earth’s surface. This downward radiation reduces the net loss of heat from the surface.

Because the clouds reduce the net radiative cooling, the Earth’s surface and the air near it do not cool down as much on a cloudy night compared to a clear night. If the temperature does not drop sufficiently to reach the dew point, dew will not form. Option A accurately describes the key process (absorption of radiation) that prevents significant surface cooling. While clouds also re-emit radiation back (related to Option B), the initial absorption is the mechanism by which they trap the outgoing heat. Option C is incorrect because cloudy nights are typically warmer than clear nights due to the blanketing effect. Option D is irrelevant to dew formation by radiation.

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3. In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG

In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements:

1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.
2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.
3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.
4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

2 only

1, 2 and 3

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UPSC IAS – 2019

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The correct answer is B) 2 and 3 only.

Hydrogen-enriched Compressed Natural Gas (H-CNG) is a fuel mixture being explored to reduce emissions from vehicles.
1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions: Incorrect. While H-CNG significantly *reduces* CO emissions compared to pure CNG, it does not typically *eliminate* them entirely. Elimination is a very strong claim.
2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions: Correct. Blending hydrogen with CNG reduces the carbon content per unit energy, leading to lower CO2 emissions. Hydrogen combustion itself produces only water. H-CNG also leads to more complete combustion of the natural gas component, resulting in reduced unburnt hydrocarbon (HC) emissions.
3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses: Correct. Studies and trials have shown that blends of hydrogen up to 20% by volume (which is one-fifth) with CNG can be used in existing CNG engines with minimal or no modifications, while achieving significant emission reductions.
4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG: Incorrect. Hydrogen production and blending typically make H-CNG more expensive than pure CNG. The cost is a major barrier to its widespread adoption.

H-CNG offers advantages in terms of reduced emissions (CO, HC, NOx, CO2) and improved engine performance (higher octane number). However, challenges remain regarding hydrogen production costs, infrastructure for storage and distribution, and compatibility with existing vehicle technology at higher blend ratios. Based on the analysis, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

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4. What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati?

What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati?

Recently discovered uranium deposits

Tropical rain forests

Underground cave systems

Water reservoirs

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The correct answer is D) Water reservoirs.

Aliyar, Isapur, and Kangsabati are all locations in India known for significant dams and associated water reservoirs.
– Aliyar Dam is in Tamil Nadu, creating the Aliyar Reservoir.
– Isapur Dam is in Maharashtra, forming the Isapur Reservoir on the Penganga river (also known as Yeldari Dam).
– Kangsabati Dam (or Mukutmanipur Dam) is in West Bengal, creating the Kangsabati Reservoir.

These locations are primarily recognized for their large water bodies created by dams, used for irrigation, water supply, and sometimes power generation. They are not commonly known for newly discovered uranium deposits, being part of tropical rainforests (as they span different climatic regions of India), or extensive underground cave systems. Thus, the commonality is that they are sites of water reservoirs.

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5. Consider the following statements: 1. Agricultural soils release ni

Consider the following statements:

1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 and 3 only

4 only

1, 2 and 3

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The correct answer is D) 1, 2 and 3.

This question assesses the understanding of sources of atmospheric nitrogen compounds.
1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment: Correct. Nitrous oxide (N₂O), a significant greenhouse gas, is released from agricultural soils through microbial processes (nitrification and denitrification), especially when nitrogen fertilizers are used. Other nitrogen oxides (like NO and NO₂) can also be released, though N₂O is the most significant from soil.
2. Cattle release ammonia into environment: Correct. Livestock, particularly cattle, excrete significant amounts of nitrogen in urine and feces. This nitrogen is converted to ammonia (NH₃) through microbial processes in manure and released into the atmosphere.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment: Correct. Similar to cattle, poultry operations generate large amounts of nitrogen-rich manure, which leads to the release of ammonia and other reactive nitrogen compounds into the atmosphere. Poultry litter management is a major source of atmospheric ammonia.

All three statements describe significant anthropogenic sources of nitrogen compounds that impact the environment, contributing to air pollution, acid rain, eutrophication, and climate change (in the case of N₂O). Therefore, all three statements are correct. The options provided seem to have a typo with “4 only”; assuming option D represents “1, 2 and 3”, that is the correct choice.

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6. Consider the following statements : 1. Under Ramsar Convention, it

Consider the following statements :

1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.
2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention.
3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

3 only

1, 2 and 3

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The correct answer is B) 2 and 3 only.

Let’s analyze each statement regarding the Ramsar Convention and India’s Wetlands Rules:
1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India: Incorrect. The Ramsar Convention requires contracting parties to designate suitable wetlands for inclusion in the List of Wetlands of International Importance (Ramsar Sites) and to promote the conservation and wise use of all wetlands in their territory. It does not mandate the protection and conservation of *all* wetlands in a strictly legal, uniform sense under the Convention itself, but encourages national actions. The primary obligation under the convention relates to the listed sites and promoting general wetland conservation.
2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention: Correct (interpreted in a broader sense). While not framed based on specific *recommendations* for these exact rules, the Rules were developed by the Indian government as a step towards fulfilling its commitments as a signatory to the Ramsar Convention, which encourages parties to establish national wetland policies and legislative frameworks. The Rules cite India’s commitments under the Convention.
3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority: Correct. The 2010 Rules explicitly included the “drainage area or catchment region of the wetlands as determined by the concerned State Government or the Union territory Administration” within the scope of the regulated areas (Rule 3(1)(i) explanation). This provision was later removed in the 2017 rules.

Statement 1 is too strong; the Convention encourages but doesn’t mandate conservation of *all* wetlands in a blanket manner. Statement 3 is a verifiable fact about the 2010 rules. Statement 2 is plausible as the rules are India’s implementation response to being a Ramsar signatory. Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

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7. In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazop

In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as

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pesticides in agriculture

preservatives in processed foods

fruit-ripening agents

moisturising agents in cosmetics

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The correct answer is A) pesticides in agriculture.

Carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate, and triazophos are all chemical compounds widely known and used as pesticides, particularly insecticides and acaricides, in agriculture to control various pests that damage crops. These chemicals belong to the organophosphate and carbamate classes of pesticides, known for their toxicity.

Due to their high toxicity to humans and non-target organisms, including pollinators and aquatic life, the use of these chemicals is viewed with apprehension and has been restricted or banned in many countries, including India, although illegal use may still occur. They are not used as preservatives in processed foods, common fruit-ripening agents (like ethylene), or moisturising agents in cosmetics. Their primary application is in agriculture for pest control.

8. Consider the following pairs: Glacier River 1. Band

Consider the following pairs:

Glacier	River
1. Bandarpunch	Yamuna
2. Bara Shigri	Chenab
3. Milam	Mandakini
4. Siachen	Nubra
5. Zemu	Manas

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

1, 2 and 4 only

1, 3 and 4 only

2 and 5 only

3 and 5

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UPSC IAS – 2019

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The correct answer is A) 1, 2 and 4 only.

This question tests the knowledge of the origin points of major rivers from specific glaciers.
1. Bandarpunch Glacier is the source of the Yamuna River: Correct. The Yamunotri Glacier, which is part of the Bandarpunch massif in Uttarakhand, is the source of the Yamuna River.
2. Bara Shigri Glacier is the source of the Chenab River: Correct. The Bara Shigri Glacier in Himachal Pradesh is the source of the Chandra River, which joins the Bhaga River to form the Chenab River at Tandi.
3. Milam Glacier is the source of the Mandakini River: Incorrect. Milam Glacier in Uttarakhand is the source of the Goriganga River, a tributary of the Kali River. The Mandakini River originates from the Chorabari Glacier near Kedarnath.
4. Siachen Glacier is the source of the Nubra River: Correct. The Siachen Glacier in Ladakh is the source of the Nubra River, a tributary of the Shyok River, which ultimately flows into the Indus River.
5. Zemu Glacier is the source of the Manas River: Incorrect. Zemu Glacier in Sikkim is the source of the Teesta River. The Manas River originates in Bhutan and flows into Assam, India, eventually joining the Brahmaputra River.

Identifying the sources of rivers from glaciers is a common topic in Indian geography. Based on the confirmed sources, pairs 1, 2, and 4 are correctly matched, while 3 and 5 are incorrect.

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9. Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the

Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years?

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China

India

Myanmar

Vietnam

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The correct answer is B) India.

In recent years, specifically over the last five years (leading up to when this question was likely framed), India has consistently been the world’s largest exporter of rice. Countries like Thailand, Vietnam, Pakistan, and the United States are also major rice exporters, but India has held the top position.

India’s dominant position in rice exports is due to its large production volume and competitive prices. While China is the largest producer of rice globally, it is also a massive consumer and often needs to import rice, rather than being a major exporter. The global rice market is dynamic, but India’s position as the leading exporter has been stable in the recent past.

10. Consider the following pairs: Sea Bordering country

Consider the following pairs:

Sea	Bordering country
1. Adriatic Sea	Albania
2. Black Sea	Croatia
3. Caspian Sea	Kazakhstan
4. Mediterranean Sea	Morocco
5. Red Sea	Syria

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

1, 2 and 4 only

1, 3 and 4 only

2 and 5 only

1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

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The correct answer is B) 1, 3 and 4 only.

The question asks to identify the correctly matched pairs of Sea and its bordering country.
1. Adriatic Sea borders Albania: Correct. The Adriatic Sea is an arm of the Mediterranean Sea, bordering Italy, Slovenia, Croatia, Bosnia and Herzegovina, Montenegro, and Albania.
2. Black Sea borders Croatia: Incorrect. Croatia is located on the Adriatic Sea, not the Black Sea. Countries bordering the Black Sea include Turkey, Bulgaria, Romania, Ukraine, Russia, and Georgia.
3. Caspian Sea borders Kazakhstan: Correct. The Caspian Sea is the world’s largest inland body of water, bordering Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan, Iran, Azerbaijan, and Russia.
4. Mediterranean Sea borders Morocco: Correct. The Mediterranean Sea borders numerous countries in Europe, Asia, and Africa, including Morocco in North Africa.
5. Red Sea borders Syria: Incorrect. Syria is located on the eastern Mediterranean coast, not the Red Sea. Countries bordering the Red Sea include Saudi Arabia, Yemen, Eritrea, Sudan, Egypt, Djibouti, Israel, and Jordan.

Understanding the geographical locations and borders of major seas and countries is essential for geography questions in UPSC. The pairs confirmed as correct are 1 (Adriatic Sea and Albania), 3 (Caspian Sea and Kazakhstan), and 4 (Mediterranean Sea and Morocco). Therefore, only statements 1, 3, and 4 are correctly matched.

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