UPSC IAS Archives

21. Bollgard I and Bollgard II technologies are mentioned in the context

Bollgard I and Bollgard II technologies are mentioned in the context of

clonal propagation of crop plants

developing genetically modified crop plants

production of plant growth substances

production of biofertilizers

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Bollgard I and Bollgard II technologies are used in the context of developing genetically modified crop plants.

– Bollgard I and Bollgard II are trade names for genetically modified (GM) cotton seeds developed by Monsanto (now part of Bayer).
– These technologies involve introducing genes from the bacterium *Bacillus thuringiensis* (Bt) into the cotton plant’s genome.
– The Bt genes (specifically *cry1Ac* in Bollgard I and *cry1Ac* and *cry2Ab* in Bollgard II) produce proteins that are toxic to certain insect pests, particularly the cotton bollworm (Helicoverpa armigera) and other lepidopteran pests.
– This genetic modification makes the cotton plant resistant to these pests, reducing the need for chemical insecticides and improving yields. This is a classic example of genetic modification for pest resistance in crops.

Bollgard cotton is widely cultivated in India and other parts of the world. While beneficial for pest control, its use has also raised concerns about pest resistance evolution and environmental impacts.

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22. In the context of hereditary diseases, consider the following statemen

In the context of hereditary diseases, consider the following statements :

Passing on mitochondrial diseases from parent to child can be prevented by mitochondrial replacement therapy either before or after in vitro fertilization of egg.
A child inherits mitochondrial diseases entirely from mother and not from father.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

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Statement 1 is correct, and statement 2 is correct.

– Statement 1: Mitochondrial Replacement Therapy (MRT), including Pronuclear Transfer or Maternal Spindle Transfer techniques, aims to prevent the transmission of mitochondrial diseases from mother to child. These procedures involve transferring the nucleus from the affected mother’s egg (or zygote) into a donor egg (or zygote) that has had its nucleus removed but retains healthy mitochondria. This can be performed either before or after fertilization (in vitro fertilization).
– Statement 2: Mitochondria, organelles responsible for energy production within cells, contain their own DNA (mtDNA). In humans, mtDNA is almost exclusively inherited from the mother because the egg contributes the vast majority of cytoplasm (containing mitochondria) to the zygote, while the sperm contributes primarily nuclear DNA. Therefore, mitochondrial diseases are maternally inherited.

Mitochondrial diseases are a group of chronic, genetic disorders that occur when mitochondria fail to produce enough energy for the body to function properly. MRT is a relatively new and complex technique with ethical and regulatory considerations, approved in some countries under specific conditions.

23. With reference to recent developments regarding Recombinant Vector Vac

With reference to recent developments regarding Recombinant Vector Vaccines, consider the following statements:

Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines.
Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

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Answer is Wrong!

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UPSC IAS – 2021

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The correct answer is C) Both 1 and 2.

– Statement 1 is correct. Recombinant vector vaccines are developed using genetic engineering techniques. A gene from the target pathogen (e.g., the spike protein gene of SARS-CoV-2) is inserted into the genome of a harmless vector organism (usually a virus or bacterium). This process involves genetic manipulation.
– Statement 2 is correct. Both viruses (e.g., adenoviruses, vaccinia virus) and bacteria (e.g., attenuated Salmonella, Listeria) are used as vectors in the development of recombinant vector vaccines. The vector delivers the pathogen’s genetic material into host cells to trigger an immune response.

– Recombinant vector vaccines are one of the modern approaches to vaccine development. They combine elements of traditional vaccine approaches with genetic engineering, offering advantages in terms of safety and the ability to elicit strong immune responses. Several COVID-19 vaccines (e.g., AstraZeneca, Sputnik V, Johnson & Johnson) are examples of viral vector vaccines.

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24. The black cotton soil of India has been formed due to the weathering

The black cotton soil of India has been formed due to the weathering of

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brown forest soil

fissure volcanic rock

granite and schist

shale and limestone

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The correct answer is B) fissure volcanic rock.

– The black cotton soils of India, also known as Regur soils, are predominantly found in the Deccan Plateau region.
– These soils are formed by the weathering of basaltic lava rocks, which are the result of massive fissure volcanic eruptions that occurred during the formation of the Deccan Traps in the late Cretaceous period.
– Basalt is a type of extrusive igneous rock formed from the rapid cooling of magnesium-rich and iron-rich lava exposed at or very near the surface of a terrestrial planet or a moon.

– Black cotton soils are rich in clay minerals like montmorillonite, which causes them to swell when wet and shrink when dry, leading to characteristic cracks. They are known for their fertility and suitability for cotton cultivation, hence the name.
– Weathering of granite and schist typically produces red or yellow soils (e.g., in the Peninsular Plateau).

25. Consider the following statements : 1. Moringa (drumstick tree) is

Consider the following statements :

1. Moringa (drumstick tree) is a leguminous evergreen tree.
2. Tamarind tree is endemic to South Asia.
3. In India, most of the tamarind is collected as minor forest produce.
4. India exports tamarind and seeds of moringa.
5. Seeds of moringa and tamarind can be used in the production of biofuels.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

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1, 2, 4 and 5

3, 4 and 5

1, 3 and 4

1, 2, 3 and 5

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Answer is Wrong!

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The correct answer is B) 3, 4 and 5.

– Statement 1 is incorrect. Moringa (Moringa oleifera) belongs to the family Moringaceae, not the Leguminosae (Fabaceae).
– Statement 2 is incorrect. The Tamarind tree (Tamarindus indica) is native to tropical Africa, although it is widely cultivated in South Asia.
– Statement 3 is likely considered correct in this context. Tamarind is listed as a Minor Forest Produce (MFP) in India, and significant quantities are collected from forests and non-cultivated areas, particularly benefiting tribal and rural populations. While commercial cultivation exists, collection as MFP is a notable source.
– Statement 4 is correct. India is a major producer and exporter of tamarind and various moringa products, including seeds, powder, and oil, due to their economic and nutritional value.
– Statement 5 is correct. Both moringa seeds (for oil) and tamarind seeds (for carbohydrates and oil) are being explored and used in the production of biofuels.

– Moringa is known as a “miracle tree” for its high nutritional value and various uses.
– Tamarind is a tropical fruit tree widely used for its pulp in culinary applications.
– The classification of produce as MFP varies by region and state in India.

26. With reference to the water on the planet Earth, consider the followin

With reference to the water on the planet Earth, consider the following statements :

1. The amount of water in the rivers and lakes is more than the amount of groundwater.
2. The amount of water in polar ice caps and glaciers is more than the amount of groundwater.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

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The correct answer is B) 2 only.

– Statement 1 is incorrect. The amount of groundwater on Earth is significantly greater than the amount of water in all rivers and lakes combined. Approximately 30% of the world’s freshwater is groundwater, while surface water bodies like rivers and lakes hold a much smaller fraction (less than 1%).
– Statement 2 is correct. The largest reservoir of freshwater is in polar ice caps and glaciers, which hold approximately 68.7% of the total freshwater. This amount is greater than the groundwater reservoir, which holds about 30.1% of freshwater.

– The vast majority (around 97.3%) of Earth’s water is saline water in oceans. Freshwater accounts for only about 2.7%, most of which is locked up in ice and groundwater.

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27. The vegetation of savannah consists of grassland with scattered small

The vegetation of savannah consists of grassland with scattered small trees, but extensive areas have no trees. The forest development in such areas is generally kept in check by one or more or a combination of some conditions.
Which of the following are such conditions?

1. Burrowing animals and termites
2. Fire
3. Grazing herbivores
4. Seasonal rainfall
5. Soil properties

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1 and 2

4 and 5

2, 3 and 4

1, 3 and 5

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The correct answer is C) 2, 3 and 4.

– Savannas are characterized by grasslands with scattered trees due to factors that limit dense forest growth.
– Fire (2) is a major factor, as seasonal dry periods make savannas prone to fires that kill young trees and favor fire-resistant grasses.
– Grazing herbivores (3) consume young trees and shrubs, preventing them from establishing and growing into mature trees.
– Seasonal rainfall (4), particularly the prolonged dry season, creates water stress that limits tree growth and increases fire frequency, contributing to the maintenance of the savanna structure.

– Burrowing animals and termites (1) can affect soil and vegetation locally but are not typically considered the primary factors controlling forest development across extensive savanna areas.
– Soil properties (5) can influence vegetation, but fire, grazing, and climate (seasonal rainfall patterns) are generally regarded as the dominant factors preventing savanna from transitioning into forest.

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28. Which one of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of l

Which one of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy?

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A committed judiciary

Centralization of powers

Elected government

Separation of powers

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The correct answer is D) Separation of powers.

– In a liberal democracy, the principle of separation of powers ensures that governmental powers are divided among distinct branches (legislative, executive, and judicial), preventing the concentration of power in any single entity. This system of checks and balances limits the potential for arbitrary rule and protects individual liberties.

– A committed judiciary (A) is essential for upholding liberty, but it is a critical component *within* the framework of separation of powers.
– Centralization of powers (B) is generally detrimental to liberty, leading towards potential authoritarianism.
– An elected government (C) is fundamental to democracy, but without constitutional limits and separation of powers, even an elected body can infringe upon liberties (e.g., tyranny of the majority).
– Thus, separation of powers is considered the foundational principle that best safeguards liberty by distributing authority and establishing checks and balances.

29. With reference to India, consider the following statements : There

With reference to India, consider the following statements :

There is only one citizenship and one domicile.
A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State.
A foreigner once granted the citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

1 and 3

2 and 3

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The correct answer is A) 1 only.

– Statement 1 is correct. India has a system of single citizenship for the entire country. While the concept of ‘domicile’ can be complex and may have regional implications for specific matters, the legal framework primarily recognizes domicile in the country as a whole in the context of citizenship status and fundamental rights.
– Statement 2 is incorrect. Article 58 of the Constitution of India lists the qualifications for election as President. It requires the person to be a citizen of India, but it does not specify that the person must be a citizen by birth. A naturalized citizen is also eligible. This requirement exists, for example, for the presidency in the United States, but not in India.
– Statement 3 is incorrect. Indian citizenship, once granted to a foreigner through naturalization or registration, can be deprived by the Government of India under specific circumstances mentioned in the Citizenship Act, 1955. These grounds include acquiring citizenship by fraud, disloyalty to the Constitution, unlawfully trading with an enemy during war, or continuous absence from India for seven years.

– The provisions regarding citizenship in India are contained in Part II of the Constitution (Articles 5-11) and the Citizenship Act, 1955.

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30. With reference to Indian judiciary, consider the following statements

With reference to Indian judiciary, consider the following statements :

Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India.
A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

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The correct answer is C) Both 1 and 2.

– Statement 1 is correct. Article 128 of the Constitution of India allows the Chief Justice of India, with the previous consent of the President, to request any person who has held the office of a Judge of the Supreme Court or of the Federal Court (if qualified for appointment as an SC judge) to sit and act as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
– Statement 2 is correct. High Courts in India have the power to review their own judgments. This power is exercised under various provisions, including the Code of Civil Procedure, Code of Criminal Procedure, Letters Patent establishing the High Courts, and the inherent power of the court to correct errors or prevent abuse of process. The scope and grounds for review are similar in principle to the Supreme Court’s review power under Article 137.

– The power of review is an important aspect of the judicial system, allowing courts to reconsider their own decisions on specific grounds, contributing to fairness and accuracy in the delivery of justice.

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