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11. Among the following, which one is the least water-efficient crop?

Among the following, which one is the least water-efficient crop?

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Sugarcane

Sunflower

Pearl millet

Red gram

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Among the given options, sugarcane is generally considered the most water-intensive crop. While the water requirement varies depending on the region, soil type, and climate, sugarcane needs a large amount of water throughout its long growing season compared to the other crops listed. Pearl millet (Bajra) and Red gram (Arhar) are typically grown as rainfed crops or require less water, especially Pearl millet which is known for its drought tolerance. Sunflower also requires less water than sugarcane. Therefore, sugarcane is the least water-efficient crop among the options.

– Water efficiency of crops refers to the amount of yield produced per unit of water consumed.
– Sugarcane is a long-duration crop with high water requirements.
– Pearl millet and Red gram are relatively drought-tolerant crops.

Water efficiency can also be measured by the yield per unit of water transpired (WUE – Water Use Efficiency) or applied (IRWUE – Irrigation Water Use Efficiency). Crops like sugarcane, rice, and cotton are known for high water consumption. Promoting water-efficient crops and practices is crucial for sustainable agriculture, especially in water-scarce regions.

12. Consider the following statements: 1. The Global Ocean Commission gr

Consider the following statements:

1. The Global Ocean Commission grants licences for seabed exploration and mining in international waters.
2. India has received licences for seabed mineral exploration in international waters.
3. Rare earth minerals’ are present on seafloor in international waters.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

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Statement 1 is incorrect because the Global Ocean Commission is an advocacy body, not a licensing authority. The International Seabed Authority (ISA) is the body established under the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) that organizes and controls mineral-related activities in the international seabed area (‘the Area’), including granting exploration and exploitation licenses. Statements 2 and 3 are correct. India has received licenses from the ISA for exploration of polymetallic nodules and polymetallic sulphides in the Indian Ocean. Rare earth minerals, along with other valuable minerals, are known to be present in deposits on the deep seafloor in international waters.

– The International Seabed Authority (ISA) regulates seabed mining activities in international waters.
– India holds licenses from the ISA for mineral exploration in the Indian Ocean.
– Rare earth elements (REEs) are found in deep-sea mineral deposits like polymetallic nodules and crusts.

The International Seabed Authority (ISA) is an autonomous international organization established under the 1982 United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) and the 1994 Agreement relating to the Implementation of Part XI of UNCLOS. India was the first country to receive the status of a ‘Pioneer Investor’ in 1987 and was allocated a site of 150,000 sq km in the Central Indian Ocean Basin for polymetallic nodule exploration. Later, India was also granted a license for exploration of polymetallic sulphides. Deep-sea mineral deposits are rich in various metals, including copper, nickel, cobalt, manganese, and rare earth elements.

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13. Consider the following rivers : 1. Brahmani 2. Nagavali 3. Subarna

Consider the following rivers :

1. Brahmani
2. Nagavali
3. Subarnarekha
4. Vamsadhara

Which of the above rise from the Eastern Ghats?

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1 and 2

2 and 4

3 and 4

1 and 3

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Nagavali and Vamsadhara rivers rise from the Eastern Ghats.

– 1. Brahmani River: Formed by the confluence of the South Koel and Sankh rivers near Rourkela in Odisha. The South Koel originates in the Chota Nagpur Plateau (Jharkhand), and the Sankh river originates in the Netarhat Plateau (also Chota Nagpur region). It does not originate from the Eastern Ghats.
– 2. Nagavali River: Rises in the Eastern Ghats near Lakhbahal village in the Bhawanipatna block of Kalahandi district, Odisha, at an elevation of about 1300 meters. It flows through Odisha and Andhra Pradesh. So, it rises from the Eastern Ghats.
– 3. Subarnarekha River: Rises from the Chota Nagpur Plateau near Piskaji village, about 16 km west of Ranchi, Jharkhand. It does not originate from the Eastern Ghats.
– 4. Vamsadhara River: Rises in the Eastern Ghats in the hilly region of Lanjigarh block, Kalahandi district, Odisha. It flows through Odisha and Andhra Pradesh. So, it rises from the Eastern Ghats.
– Therefore, only Nagavali and Vamsadhara among the given options originate from the Eastern Ghats.

The Eastern Ghats are a discontinuous range of mountains along India’s eastern coast. Many medium and minor rivers originate from these hills and flow eastward into the Bay of Bengal. Major rivers like Godavari, Krishna, Mahanadi, and Cauvery flow through the Eastern Ghats in some parts but originate from the Western Ghats or central India.

14. With reference to India, Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol and Khatu are the n

With reference to India, Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol and Khatu are the names of

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glaciers

mangrove areas

Ramsar sites

saline lakes

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Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol, and Khatu are names of saline lakes in India.

– These names refer to lakes located in Rajasthan, India.
– Didwana Lake, Kuchaman Lake, and Khatu Lake are well-known salt lakes in the state. They are playas or temporary lakes that become saline due to evaporation in the arid and semi-arid climate.
– These lakes are important sources of salt extraction.
– The options are distinct geographical features: Glaciers are found in high mountains (e.g., Himalayas). Mangrove areas are coastal ecosystems. Ramsar sites are designated wetlands of international importance (while some of these lakes could potentially be Ramsar sites, their primary identification is as saline lakes).

Rajasthan has several inland drainage basins with saline lakes due to its topography and climatic conditions. Other notable saline lakes in Rajasthan include Sambhar Lake (India’s largest inland salt lake), Lunkaransar, and Pachpadra.

15. With reference to the Indus river system, of the following four rivers

With reference to the Indus river system, of the following four rivers, three of them pour into one of them which joins the Indus direct. Among the following, which one is such river that joins the Indus direct?

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Chenab

Jhelum

Ravi

Sutlej

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Among the given options, the Sutlej is the river that joins the Indus direct, receiving waters from the other major tributaries indirectly.

– The Indus River system consists of the main Indus River and its major tributaries: Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, and Sutlej. These five tributaries flow through the Punjab region.
– The Jhelum River flows into the Chenab River.
– The Ravi River flows into the Chenab River.
– The Beas River flows into the Sutlej River (in India).
– The Chenab River (carrying the waters of Jhelum and Ravi) then joins the Sutlej River near Uch Sharif in Pakistan.
– The combined river, known as the Panjnad (“Five Rivers”), flows for a short distance before joining the Indus River at Mithankot, Pakistan.
– Thus, the Sutlej is the river among the options that receives the waters of the other three (Jhelum and Ravi via Chenab, and Beas – though Beas is not in the list of options, it joins Sutlej before the confluence with Chenab) and then joins the Indus as the Panjnad.
– The wording “three of them pour into one of them which joins the Indus direct” is a bit simplified. Jhelum and Ravi pour into Chenab. Chenab pours into Sutlej. Sutlej (combined with Beas) then joins the Indus. The Sutlej forms the final major confluence (Panjnad) with the Indus.

The Indus Water Treaty between India and Pakistan allocates the waters of the eastern rivers (Ravi, Beas, Sutlej) to India and the western rivers (Indus, Jhelum, Chenab) to Pakistan.

16. With reference to ‘palm oil’, consider the following statements : 1.

With reference to ‘palm oil’, consider the following statements :

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1. The palm oil tree is native to Southeast Asia.
2. The palm oil is a raw material for some industries producing lipstick and perfumes.
3. The palm oil can be used to produce biodiesel.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

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Statements 2 and 3 are correct, while statement 1 is incorrect.

– Statement 1: The oil palm tree (*Elaeis guineensis*) is native to the tropical regions of West and Southwest Africa. Its extensive cultivation was introduced to Southeast Asia (particularly Malaysia and Indonesia), where it is now grown commercially on a massive scale, making these regions the world’s largest producers. So, statement 1 is incorrect.
– Statement 2: Palm oil and its fractions (derivatives) are versatile ingredients widely used in various non-food industries, including cosmetics, personal care products, and cleaning agents. It is a common ingredient in soaps, detergents, shampoos, lotions, lipstick, and perfumes due to its properties as an emulsifier, surfactant, or emollient. So, statement 2 is correct.
– Statement 3: Palm oil can be processed through various methods, such as transesterification, to produce biodiesel (fatty acid methyl esters). Palm oil-based biodiesel is used as a renewable alternative fuel. So, statement 3 is correct.

The expansion of palm oil plantations, especially in Southeast Asia, has raised significant environmental concerns, including deforestation, habitat loss, and greenhouse gas emissions. This has led to efforts to promote sustainable palm oil production.

17. How is permaculture farming different from conventional chemical farmi

How is permaculture farming different from conventional chemical farming?

1. Permaculture farming discourages monocultural practices but in conventional chemical farming, monoculture practices are pre-dominant.
2. Conventional chemical farming can cause increase in soil salinity but the occurrence of such phenomenon is not observed in permaculture farming.
3. Conventional chemical farming is easily possible in semi-arid regions but permaculture farming is not so easily possible in such regions.
4. Practice of mulching is very important in permaculture farming but not necessarily so in conventional chemical farming.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

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1 and 3

1, 2 and 4

4 only

2 and 3

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Statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct ways in which permaculture farming differs from conventional chemical farming.

– Statement 1: Permaculture design emphasizes biodiversity, polyculture (growing multiple crops together), and integrating plants with animals and other elements to create resilient ecosystems. Conventional chemical farming often relies on monoculture (growing a single crop over a large area) for simplicity in management, especially concerning planting, harvesting, and chemical application. So, statement 1 is correct.
– Statement 2: Conventional chemical farming often involves the use of synthetic fertilizers, particularly nitrogen fertilizers. Excessive or improper use of these fertilizers can lead to the accumulation of salts in the soil, causing salinization. Permaculture practices focus on building soil health through organic matter, cover cropping, and composting, which naturally improve soil structure and drainage and do not typically cause salinization. So, statement 2 is correct.
– Statement 3: Permaculture principles, such as water harvesting, soil building, selecting drought-tolerant species, and creating microclimates, are highly effective and often particularly beneficial in semi-arid and arid regions where water is scarce and environmental conditions are harsh. Conventional chemical farming in such regions often requires significant external inputs, including potentially unsustainable irrigation, and can be more challenging without adapting to local conditions. So, statement 3 is incorrect.
– Statement 4: Mulching (covering the soil surface with organic material) is a fundamental practice in permaculture for conserving soil moisture, suppressing weeds, regulating soil temperature, preventing erosion, and adding organic matter as it decomposes. While mulching can be used in conventional farming, it is not a necessarily central or widespread practice compared to its importance in permaculture design for creating resilient and self-sustaining systems. So, statement 4 is correct.

Permaculture is a design system for creating sustainable human habitats, integrating land, resources, people, and the environment. Conventional chemical farming often focuses on maximizing short-term yield using synthetic inputs.

18. Consider the following statements : Adenoviruses have single-strand

Consider the following statements :

Adenoviruses have single-stranded DNA genomes whereas retroviruses have double-stranded DNA genomes.
Common cold is sometime caused by an adenovirus whereas AIDS is caused by a retrovirus.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

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Statement 1 is incorrect, while statement 2 is correct.

– Statement 1: Adenoviruses are non-enveloped viruses with a *double-stranded* linear DNA genome. Retroviruses are enveloped viruses with a *single-stranded* RNA genome (typically two copies). They are called retroviruses because they use an enzyme called reverse transcriptase to convert their RNA genome into double-stranded DNA after infecting the host cell. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.
– Statement 2: Adenoviruses are one of the common causes of the common cold, along with rhinoviruses and coronaviruses. AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome) is caused by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), which is a well-known example of a retrovirus. Therefore, statement 2 is correct.

Adenoviruses can also cause other illnesses like conjunctivitis, bronchitis, and gastroenteritis. HIV primarily infects components of the human immune system, such as CD4+ T cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells, leading to progressive failure of the immune system.

19. Consider the following : Bacteria Fungi Virus Which of the ab

Consider the following :

Bacteria
Fungi
Virus

Which of the above can be cultured in artificial/synthetic medium?

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1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

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Bacteria and Fungi can be cultured in artificial/synthetic medium.

– Bacteria and Fungi are generally heterotrophic organisms that can obtain nutrients from their environment. They can be grown in laboratory settings using various artificial media (like nutrient broth, agar plates, etc.) that provide the necessary nutrients, carbon sources, and growth factors.
– Viruses, on the other hand, are obligate intracellular parasites. They lack the cellular machinery required for replication and must infect living host cells to reproduce. They cannot replicate or be cultured in artificial/synthetic media alone. Instead, viruses are cultured using techniques involving live cells or tissues, such as cell cultures, embryonated eggs, or living animals.

Artificial media are typically composed of a defined mixture of salts, sugars, amino acids, vitamins, and sometimes complex organic substances like peptone or yeast extract. The composition of the medium can be adjusted to suit the specific nutritional requirements of different types of bacteria or fungi.

20. In a pressure cooker, the temperature at which the food is cooked depe

In a pressure cooker, the temperature at which the food is cooked depends mainly upon which of the following?

Area of the hole in the lid
Temperature of the flame
Weight of the lid

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

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The temperature at which food is cooked in a pressure cooker depends mainly upon the area of the hole in the lid and the weight of the lid.

– A pressure cooker works by creating a sealed environment that traps steam, increasing the internal pressure.
– The boiling point of water increases with pressure. At standard atmospheric pressure (1 atm), water boils at 100°C (212°F). In a pressure cooker, the pressure can rise to about 2 atm (or more), raising the boiling point to around 120-125°C (248-257°F).
– The maximum pressure inside the cooker is regulated by a pressure release valve, which typically consists of a small hole or vent in the lid covered by a weight or spring mechanism.
– The pressure at which steam is released depends directly on the weight placed on the vent and inversely on the area of the vent hole under the weight. A heavier weight or a smaller hole area will result in higher pressure and thus a higher cooking temperature.
– The temperature of the flame affects the *rate* at which the water heats up and turns into steam, and thus how quickly the desired pressure is reached. However, once the pressure regulator starts venting steam, the temperature inside stabilizes at a level determined by the pressure, not the flame temperature (as long as the heat input is sufficient to maintain that pressure).
– Therefore, the main factors determining the cooking temperature are the weight of the lid (specifically the pressure regulator) and the area of the hole it covers, which together regulate the internal pressure.

Cooking at a higher temperature under pressure significantly reduces cooking time compared to boiling at atmospheric pressure. Different pressure cookers and their regulators are designed to operate at specific pressures, typically “low” or “high” pressure settings, corresponding to different weights or spring tensions.

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