UPSC CISF-AC-EXE Archives

21. Through the X-BIS Screen, explosives are seen in

Through the X-BIS Screen, explosives are seen in

[amp_mcq option1=”Orange colour” option2=”Green colour” option3=”Black colour” option4=”White colour” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017

Download PDF Attempt Online

The correct answer is A) Orange colour. In most standard X-ray Baggage Inspection Systems (X-BIS), organic materials, which include explosives and narcotics, are typically displayed in shades of orange or brown.

– X-BIS machines use dual-energy X-rays to differentiate between materials based on their atomic number (Zeff).
– Different colours are assigned to different categories of materials:
– Organic materials (low Zeff, e.g., paper, cloth, food, explosives, drugs) – often shown as orange/brown.
– Mixed materials (medium Zeff, e.g., plastics, water) – often shown as green.
– Inorganic materials (high Zeff, e.g., metals, glass) – often shown as blue/black.

– This colour coding helps security personnel quickly identify potential threats or prohibited items within luggage. While colour schemes can vary slightly between manufacturers, the orange/brown representation for organic materials like explosives is widely used.

22. Which of the following are the branches of the Central Industrial Secu

Which of the following are the branches of the Central Industrial Security Force ?

Executive Branch
Ministerial Branch
Fire Services Branch

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”1, 2 and 3″ option3=”1 and 3 only” option4=”2 and 3 only” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017

Download PDF Attempt Online

The correct answer is B) 1, 2 and 3. The Central Industrial Security Force comprises the Executive Branch, Ministerial Branch, and Fire Services Branch.

– The Executive Branch consists of personnel involved in security duties, command, and field operations.
– The Ministerial Branch comprises administrative and clerical staff supporting the force’s operations.
– The Fire Services Branch is a specialised wing of the CISF providing fire prevention and fighting services, particularly in industrial undertakings and public sector units under the CISF’s security cover.

– CISF plays a crucial role in providing security cover to various critical infrastructure sectors in India, including airports, seaports, power plants, space installations, and government buildings. Its structure with executive, ministerial, and specialised branches like fire services reflects the diverse nature of its responsibilities.

23. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?

Which one of the following statements is not correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”The Central Vigilance Commissioner is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal on the recommendations of a Committee.” option2=”The Vigilance Commissioners are appointed by the President on the recommendations of the Central Vigilance Commissioner.” option3=”The tenure of the Central Vigilance Commissioner and Vigilance Commissioners is identical.” option4=”A Vigilance Commissioner cannot be given any diplomatic assignment.” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017

Download PDF Attempt Online

The correct answer is B) The Vigilance Commissioners are appointed by the President on the recommendations of the Central Vigilance Commissioner. This statement is incorrect.

– According to Section 4 of the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003, both the Central Vigilance Commissioner and the Vigilance Commissioners are appointed by the President.
– Their appointment is made on the recommendation of a Committee consisting of the Prime Minister (Chairperson), the Minister of Home Affairs, and the Leader of the Opposition in the House of the People.
– The CVC does not recommend the appointment of the Vigilance Commissioners.

– Statement A is correct as per Section 4 of the CVC Act.
– Statement C is correct; Section 6 of the CVC Act prescribes a tenure of four years or until attaining the age of sixty-five years, whichever is earlier, for both the CVC and Vigilance Commissioners.
– Statement D reflects the spirit of independence and restriction on post-retirement employment outlined in Section 9 of the Act, which aims to prevent future favour and maintain impartiality. While not explicitly prohibited *during* tenure for *any* diplomatic assignment, their role inherently precludes such engagements, and post-tenure restrictions cover ‘office of profit under the Government’ which diplomatic assignments are. However, the clear factual inaccuracy is in statement B.

24. A member of the Central Industrial Security Force can seek protection

A member of the Central Industrial Security Force can seek protection for an act committed in the course of bonafide discharge of his/her duty under which one of the following Acts ?

[amp_mcq option1=”The Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968″ option2=”The Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946″ option3=”The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973″ option4=”The Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958″ correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017

Download PDF Attempt Online

The correct answer is C) The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973. Section 197 of the CrPC provides protection to public servants, including members of the armed forces of the Union, by requiring prior government sanction for their prosecution in respect of acts done while acting or purporting to act in the discharge of their official duty.

– CISF is constituted under the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968, and is an armed force of the Union.
– Section 197 of the CrPC is a general provision applicable across India that offers protection to various categories of public servants, including members of armed forces, against prosecution for official acts without prior sanction.
– This protection is available for acts committed “in the course of bonafide discharge of his/her duty”.

– The Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968 defines the force, its powers, and duties but primarily deals with its internal administration and functioning, not providing general protection from prosecution for official acts.
– The Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946 governs the CBI.
– The Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, 1958 provides special powers and protection to members of the armed forces operating in “disturbed areas,” but CrPC Section 197 is the general protection available to members of forces like CISF across the board for acts done in official duty.

25. Which one of the following Acts is applicable to the members of the Ce

Which one of the following Acts is applicable to the members of the Central Industrial Security Force ?

[amp_mcq option1=”The Wages Act, 1936″ option2=”The Police (Incitement to Disaffection) Act, 1922″ option3=”The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947″ option4=”The Factories Act, 1948″ correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017

Download PDF Attempt Online

The correct answer is B) The Police (Incitement to Disaffection) Act, 1922. This Act is applicable to members of police forces and other forces charged with the maintenance of public order, which includes disciplined forces like the CISF.

– The Police (Incitement to Disaffection) Act, 1922 aims to prevent activities that incite disaffection or breach of discipline amongst members of police forces.
– Section 21A of the CISF Act, 1968 specifically states that certain Acts, including the Trade Unions Act, 1926 and the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, do not apply to members of the Force. This reinforces that CISF members are governed by specific service laws and other laws applicable to disciplined forces, like the 1922 Act.

– The Payment of Wages Act, 1936, Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, and Factories Act, 1948 are primarily labour laws governing industrial and factory workers and certain other employed persons. Members of armed forces or forces like CISF are generally excluded from the purview of such general labour laws due to their distinct service conditions and disciplinary framework.

26. As per the provisions of the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 19

As per the provisions of the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968, which one of the following statements is incorrect?
During his/her suspension from office, a member of the Force

[amp_mcq option1=”is subject to the same responsibilities as he/she had before suspension.” option2=”is subject to the same discipline as he/she was subject to before suspension.” option3=”can be subjected to any penalty that could be imposed on him/her before his/her suspension.” option4=”ceases to be a member of the Force for the duration of his/her suspension.” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017

Download PDF Attempt Online

The correct answer is D) ceases to be a member of the Force for the duration of his/her suspension. Suspension is a temporary state where a member is relieved of their duties but remains within the disciplinary control and is still a member of the force. They do not cease to be a member.

– Suspension is a disciplinary action or an interim measure pending inquiry. It does not terminate the employment or membership in the force.
– During suspension, a member is still subject to the rules, discipline, and responsibilities (in terms of conduct and adherence to rules) of the force.
– Penalties, including termination or dismissal, can be imposed after the completion of disciplinary proceedings, which may occur during or after the suspension period.

– Section 9(2) of the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968 read with relevant rules (e.g., CISF Rules) governs punishments and disciplinary procedures, including suspension. Suspension maintains the employer-employee relationship and the disciplinary jurisdiction over the suspended individual.

27. ‘A’ is a peon of a store room filled with wheat. ‘B’ is the owner of t

‘A’ is a peon of a store room filled with wheat. ‘B’ is the owner of the store room. ‘A’ introduces water into the store so that wheat be destroyed. ‘A’ has committed the offence of

[amp_mcq option1=”Cheating” option2=”Trespasses by water” option3=”Mischief” option4=”Criminal Breach of Trust” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017

Download PDF Attempt Online

The correct answer is C) Mischief. The act of introducing water into a store room of wheat with the intention to destroy it constitutes causing destruction to property, which falls squarely under the definition of ‘Mischief’ as per Section 425 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC).

– Mischief involves causing destruction or damage to property, or any change in the property or its situation that diminishes its value or utility, with the intention to cause wrongful loss or damage to the public or any person.
– In this scenario, ‘A’ intentionally causes the destruction of wheat (property) belonging to ‘B’, thereby causing wrongful loss to ‘B’. This precisely fits the definition of mischief.

– Cheating (Section 415 IPC) involves deception.
– Criminal Breach of Trust (Section 405 IPC) involves dishonest misappropriation or conversion of property entrusted to someone. While ‘A’ is a peon and potentially has custody, the offence is destruction, not misappropriation.
– “Trespasses by water” is not a specific recognised offence in the IPC. Criminal trespass (Section 441 IPC) involves unlawful entry into property.

28. Under the provisions of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, confession befo

Under the provisions of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, confession before a police officer by the accused in the custody of the police officer becomes relevant, if

[amp_mcq option1=”the accused is a minor” option2=”the accused is a repeat offender” option3=”evidence is discovered in consequence of the confession” option4=”None of the above” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017

Download PDF Attempt Online

The correct answer is C) evidence is discovered in consequence of the confession.

Sections 25 and 26 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, generally make confessions made to a police officer or while in police custody (unless before a Magistrate) inadmissible. However, Section 27 provides a crucial exception: “when any fact is deposed to as discovered in consequence of information received from a person accused of any offence, in the custody of a police officer, so much of such information, whether it amounts to a confession or not, as relates distinctly to the fact thereby discovered, may be proved.” This is the ‘discovery’ rule, where the part of the confession leading to a material discovery becomes relevant and admissible.

This exception under Section 27 is based on the principle that the discovery of a fact guarantees the truthfulness of the information received from the accused to that extent. Factors like the accused being a minor or a repeat offender (Options A and B) do not make a confession before a police officer admissible under the Act.

29. Which one of the following is not an essential ingredient of the offen

Which one of the following is not an essential ingredient of the offence of theft?

[amp_mcq option1=”The property may be moved with or without the consent of the person in possession of the property” option2=”The moving of a property should be in order to take such property” option3=”The property should be moved out of the possession of any person” option4=”The movable property must be moved with dishonest intention” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017

Download PDF Attempt Online

The correct answer is A) The property may be moved with or without the consent of the person in possession of the property.

The definition of theft under Section 378 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, explicitly requires that the movable property is taken “out of the possession of any person without that person’s consent”. Therefore, consent of the person in possession negates the element of theft. Option A states that the property *may* be moved *with or without* consent, which directly contradicts the requirement that it must be *without* consent. Thus, moving the property *with* consent is not an essential ingredient of theft.

The other options describe essential ingredients of theft: the property must be moved (B and C involve movement and taking from possession) and the movement must be with dishonest intention (D). The taking must be from the possession of someone, even if that person isn’t the owner. The property must be movable.

30. As per the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, which of t

As per the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, which of the following activities is/are not considered as ‘industry’ ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Domestic service” option2=”Khadi or village industries” option3=”Hospitals or dispensaries” option4=”All of the above” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017

Download PDF Attempt Online

The correct answer is A) Domestic service.

The definition of “industry” under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 has been subject to extensive judicial interpretation. While the definition is broad (“any business, trade, undertaking, manufacture or calling of employers…”), courts have carved out exceptions. Domestic service, where individuals are employed in private homes for personal household work, is generally not considered an ‘industry’ within the meaning of the Act.

Activities like hospitals or dispensaries, and potentially certain organized Khadi or village industries depending on their structure and purpose, have been held by courts to fall within the definition of ‘industry’ for the purposes of the Act, especially after landmark judgments like the Bangalore Water Supply case. Therefore, domestic service is the most distinct exclusion among the given options.