UPSC CISF-AC-EXE Archives

1. Which one of the following should not be used as first aid to stop b

Which one of the following should not be used as first aid to stop bleeding of the injured VIP ?

Direct pressure

Elevation used with Direct Pressure

Pressure bandages

Inject Morphine to ease pain immediately

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UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2018

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The correct answer is D) Inject Morphine to ease pain immediately. Morphine is a pain medication and is not a method used in standard first aid to stop bleeding. Its administration requires medical training and specific authorization.

Standard first aid techniques for severe bleeding focus on applying pressure to the wound to help blood clot and stem the flow. Direct pressure, elevation of the injured limb (if possible and not contraindicated), and the use of pressure bandages are recognized and effective first aid measures for controlling bleeding.

Pain management, especially through injectable narcotics like Morphine, falls outside the scope of basic first aid. Administering such medication requires qualified medical personnel. The priority in first aid for severe bleeding is to control the hemorrhage, not to alleviate pain through medication that could potentially have side effects or be improperly administered by someone without medical training.

2. Which one of the following is not necessary for perimeter security ?

Which one of the following is not necessary for perimeter security ?

CCTV

Water moat

Alarm system

Lighting

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UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2018

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The correct answer is B) Water moat. While a water moat can act as a physical barrier, it is not a standard or universally necessary component of modern perimeter security, unlike electronic surveillance, detection systems, and illumination.

Modern perimeter security relies on a layered approach, typically including physical barriers (fences, walls), surveillance (CCTV), detection systems (alarms, sensors), and deterrence mechanisms (lighting, signage). CCTV, alarm systems, and lighting are widely used and considered fundamental components for effective perimeter security in various settings (industrial, infrastructure, residential). A water moat is a less common, more specialized, and often impractical barrier in most contemporary security applications.

Options A, C, and D represent essential elements of an integrated perimeter security system. CCTV provides visual monitoring, alarm systems detect intrusion attempts, and lighting enhances visibility for surveillance and acts as a deterrent during hours of darkness. A water moat’s effectiveness depends heavily on the environment and is often cost-prohibitive and difficult to maintain compared to other barriers.

3. Which of the following is/are the duty/duties of the ROP ?

Which of the following is/are the duty/duties of the ROP ?

To secure the road route from ambush

To secure the road route from land mines and IEDs

To keep the route secure till the convoy has passed completely

All of the above

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UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2018

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The correct answer is D) All of the above. All the listed points are standard duties of a Road Opening Party (ROP).

A Road Opening Party (ROP) is deployed ahead of a convoy, patrol, or important movement along a route, especially in areas with potential threats. Their primary role is to sanitize the route and ensure its safety. This involves checking for potential ambush sites, searching for explosive devices (mines, IEDs), and maintaining security along the route until the protected movement has safely passed.

ROP operations are crucial for ensuring the safe passage of personnel and vehicles in potentially hostile environments. Their tasks directly address the main threats encountered on such routes: direct attack (ambush) and hidden explosives (mines/IEDs). Maintaining security until the convoy is clear ensures the effectiveness of the route sanitization.

4. While establishing an observation post, several precautions are taken.

While establishing an observation post, several precautions are taken. Which one of the following is not one of them ?

Select a place from where you can see everything without being seen yourself

The observation post should be lower than the area that is to be observed

The observation post should be at a point where it can be reached easily and from where you can move out quickly

The observation post should be far from the skyline

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UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2018

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The correct answer is B) The observation post should be lower than the area that is to be observed. This is incorrect; an observation post is typically established on ground that is *higher* than or at least level with the area to be observed to maximize visibility and field of view.

Principles of establishing an observation post (OP) include maximizing observation capabilities while minimizing the risk of detection and ensuring the safety and operational effectiveness of the observer. Key considerations are concealment (seeing without being seen), elevation (for good vantage point), accessibility (for deployment and withdrawal), and avoiding silhouetting against the horizon (skyline).

Option A is a fundamental principle of concealment for an OP. Option C relates to accessibility and safety, which are practical considerations. Option D is crucial for concealment, as being on the skyline makes the observer easily visible. Establishing an OP lower than the observed area would severely restrict the field of vision and is contrary to the purpose.

5. What intervention plan is activated by a competent authority to counte

What intervention plan is activated by a competent authority to counter the possible consequences arising from communicated threat or discovery of an explosive device at an airport ?

High alert

Bomb threat contingency plan

Counter terror contingency plan

Red alert

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UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2018

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The correct answer is B) Bomb threat contingency plan. This is the specific intervention plan designed to handle situations involving communicated threats or the discovery of explosive devices.

Airport security protocols include specific contingency plans for various types of emergencies. A bomb threat or discovery of an explosive device triggers the activation of a specialized plan tailored to the unique risks and procedures associated with explosives, including search protocols, evacuation procedures, and coordination with bomb disposal experts.

Options A and D (High alert, Red alert) are general alert levels indicating a heightened state of readiness but are not specific intervention *plans*. Option C (Counter terror contingency plan) is broader and might include bomb threats, but the most direct and specific plan for an explosive device scenario is the “Bomb threat contingency plan”.

6. On which one of the following grounds can monetary rewards not be gran

On which one of the following grounds can monetary rewards not be granted as per the provisions of the Central Industrial Security Force Rules, 2001?

Arrest of a criminal

Making exceptionally good enquiries

Doing general good work

Doing extra hard work in connection with the protection, safeguard and security of an industrial undertaking

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UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2018

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The correct answer is C) Doing general good work. While good work is expected, monetary rewards as per the Rules are typically granted for specific, exceptional acts or performance, not for merely ‘general’ good work.

Rule 88 of the Central Industrial Security Force Rules, 2001 outlines the grounds for granting rewards. These grounds include specific actions like acts of gallantry, exceptional good work, extraordinary work in handling difficult situations, detecting serious crimes, making valuable suggestions, etc. ‘General good work’ is too vague to be a specific criterion for a monetary reward under these rules.

The other options describe specific achievements or efforts: A) Arrest of a criminal (detecting serious crime), B) Making exceptionally good enquiries (exceptional good work), and D) Doing extra hard work related to core duty (extraordinary good work). These align better with the specific criteria listed for granting rewards.

7. Which one of the following is not one of the minor penalties prescribe

Which one of the following is not one of the minor penalties prescribed in the Central Industrial Security Force Rules, 2001?

Withholding of promotion

Removal from service which shall not be a disqualification for future employment under the Government

Withholding of increment of pay

Fine of an amount not exceeding seven days’ pay

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UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2018

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The correct answer is B) Removal from service which shall not be a disqualification for future employment under the Government. This penalty, even with the caveat, falls under the category of major penalties in the Central Industrial Security Force Rules, 2001, not minor ones.

Rule 34 of the Central Industrial Security Force Rules, 2001 lists the penalties. Minor penalties typically include censure, withholding of promotion, reduction to a lower stage in the time scale for a specified period, and withholding of increments of pay for a specified period. Major penalties include reduction to a lower grade/post/time scale, compulsory retirement, removal from service, and dismissal from service.

“Removal from service” is explicitly listed as a major penalty in Rule 34 (ix). The description in option B (“which shall not be a disqualification for future employment under the Government”) is a specific type of removal, but it is still a removal from service, which is classified as a major penalty. Options A, C, and D (or similar concepts like specific fines/deductions) are generally considered minor penalties.

8. Which one of the following is not correct in relation to an order of s

Which one of the following is not correct in relation to an order of suspension of an enrolled member of the Central Industrial Security Force?

An enrolled member of the Force is deemed to have been placed under suspension by an order of the appointing authority with effect from the date of detention if he/she is detained in custody, whether on a criminal charge or otherwise, for a period exceeding 48 hours.

An order of suspension made or deemed to have been made continues to remain in force until it is modified or revoked by the authority competent to do so.

An order of suspension made or deemed to have been made can be modified or revoked at any time by any authority to which the authority who had issued the order of suspension is subordinate.

An enrolled member cannot be kept under suspension for more than 180 days.

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UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2018

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Central Industrial Security Force Rules, 2001, Rule 32 deals with suspension. While Rule 32(6) mandates periodic review of suspension orders (before 90 days and subsequently before 180 days from the date of extension), it does not prescribe an absolute maximum period like 180 days for the entire duration of suspension. Suspension can continue beyond 180 days, subject to timely reviews by the competent authority or a review committee. Therefore, the statement that an enrolled member cannot be kept under suspension for more than 180 days is incorrect.

CISF Rules require periodic review of suspension orders but do not impose an absolute upper limit of 180 days on the total duration of suspension.

Options A, B, and C are consistent with the provisions of Rule 32 of the CISF Rules, 2001. Deemed suspension after 48 hours in custody is covered by Rule 32(2)(a). The continuation and modification/revocation of suspension orders by the competent authority or a superior authority are covered by Rule 32(5).

9. If, during the probation period of a member of the Central Industrial

If, during the probation period of a member of the Central Industrial Security Force, the appointing authority is of the opinion that the member is not fit for permanent appointment, which one of the following actions cannot be taken by the appointing authority?

The appointing authority may terminate his/her services after giving one month’s notice.

The appointing authority may terminate his/her services with immediate effect but after giving three months’ pay in lieu of the aforesaid notice.

The appointing authority may revert him/her to the rank from which he/she was promoted.

The appointing authority may repatriate him/her to his/her parent department, as the case may be.

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CISF Rules, 2001, Rule 24 deals with the termination of services of probationers. Rule 24(a) allows termination by giving one month’s notice. Rule 24(b) allows termination by paying a sum equivalent to the amount of pay plus allowances for *one month* in lieu of notice. Option B describes terminating services with immediate effect after giving *three months’* pay in lieu of notice. This is not in accordance with Rule 24.

CISF Rules specify termination of probation with one month’s notice or one month’s pay in lieu thereof, not three months’ pay.

Option A (one month’s notice) and Option C (reversion to promoted rank) are valid actions under Rule 24 for different scenarios of probationers. Option D (repatriation) is also a standard action for deputationists failing probation, though not explicitly detailed in Rule 24 itself. Option B is incorrect due to the specified duration of pay in lieu.

10. Which one of the following is not correct in relation to the penalty f

Which one of the following is not correct in relation to the penalty for neglect of duty prescribed in the Central Industrial Security Force Act?

A member of the Force convicted of neglect of duty cannot be punished with imprisonment.

The offence of neglect of duty is cognizable and non-bailable, notwithstanding anything contained in the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.

The Central Government may invest the Commandant with the powers of a Magistrate for trying the offence of neglect of duty.

There is no absolute bar on an offence punishable under the Act to be tried by an ordinary criminal court.

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UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2018

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Section 12 of the Central Industrial Security Force Act, 1968, prescribes the penalties for neglect of duty and other specified offences. It states that a member convicted of such an offence “shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to six months, or with fine which may extend to five hundred rupees, or with both.” Statement A says a member *cannot* be punished with imprisonment, which directly contradicts Section 12.

The CISF Act explicitly allows for imprisonment as a punishment for neglect of duty, making the statement that imprisonment cannot be awarded incorrect.

Option B is partially correct; Section 13(1) makes the offence cognizable. However, the Act does not state it is non-bailable; based on CrPC classification for offences with max 6 months imprisonment, it is generally bailable. So, the “non-bailable” part of B is incorrect, making B also an incorrect statement. However, A is a more direct contradiction of the punishment defined in the Act. Option C is correct as Section 15 allows the Central Government to invest Commandants with magisterial powers. Option D is correct as Section 16 confirms concurrent jurisdiction of ordinary criminal courts. Given the options and typical question design, A is the intended incorrect statement focusing on the defined penalty.