UPSC CISF-AC-EXE Archives

1. All appointments to Central Civil Services Group ‘A’ and Central Civil

All appointments to Central Civil Services Group ‘A’ and Central Civil Posts Group ‘A’ shall be made by ;

Chairman, UPSC

The Prime Minister of India

The President of India

Authorities specified in this behalf in the Schedule

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023

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The correct answer is D) Authorities specified in this behalf in the Schedule. While the President is the constitutional head of the executive and the ultimate source of authority for appointments to Union services and posts, the actual ‘Appointing Authority’ for Central Civil Services Group ‘A’ and Central Civil Posts Group ‘A’ is defined in the relevant recruitment rules, schedules, or by specific orders issued by the President. This authority can be the President or another designated authority. Rule 9(1) of the CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965, explicitly states that the Appointing Authority is as specified in the relevant recruitment rules or the President or an authority specified by the President. This aligns with option D which refers to authorities specified in this behalf in the Schedule (or related documents).

The Appointing Authority for Group ‘A’ posts/services under the Union government is determined by specific rules and schedules, which may designate the President or other authorities acting under the President’s power.

Although appointment letters for Central Services Group ‘A’ are issued ‘by order and in the name of the President’, the specific authority empowered to make the appointment (the Appointing Authority as defined in service law) is as laid down in recruitment rules or the Schedule to the CCS (CCA) Rules or other specific orders. This designated authority is often the President, but the mechanism for identification is through these rules/schedules, making option D a more accurate description of the formal basis for the appointment authority.

2. Which of the following factors are responsible for the success of warn

Which of the following factors are responsible for the success of warning and detection by a dog ?

1. Ability of the Handler to read his dog
2. Concentration of scent
3. Density of vegetation
4. Condition of fitness of the dog

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1, 2 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023

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The correct answer is D) 1, 2, 3 and 4. All the listed factors are responsible for the success of warning and detection by a dog. The handler’s ability to read the dog’s signals, the concentration of the scent the dog is detecting, the environmental conditions like density of vegetation affecting scent and movement, and the dog’s physical fitness and health all significantly impact its performance in detection and warning tasks.

Successful K9 detection and warning depend on a combination of the dog’s innate abilities and training, the handler’s skill, the specific scent conditions, and the surrounding environment.

A skilled handler is crucial for interpreting subtle changes in the dog’s behaviour that indicate a find or warning. Scent concentration affects how easily and quickly the dog can locate the source. Vegetation density can disperse scent, obstruct the dog’s path, or hide the target. A dog’s fitness ensures it has the stamina and focus required for prolonged search or patrol duties.

3. LTC cannot be availed during :

LTC cannot be availed during :

Child care leave

Earned leave

Casual leave

Half pay leave

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023

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The correct answer is C) Casual leave. As per government rules regarding Leave Travel Concession (LTC), LTC can be availed during Earned Leave (EL) or Half Pay Leave (HPL) or Commuted Leave. Casual Leave (CL) is short-term leave for casual purposes and cannot be combined with LTC.

LTC facility is linked with longer periods of admissible leave such as Earned Leave or Half Pay Leave, and is specifically not admissible during Casual Leave.

Casual Leave does not technically constitute “leave” in the sense of interrupting service; the government servant on Casual Leave is still considered on duty. LTC requires proper leave (EL, HPL, etc.) to be sanctioned for the journey period. Child Care Leave, being a recognized form of leave, can potentially be combined with LTC depending on specific rules, but Casual Leave is definitely excluded.

4. Which of the following is/are most relevant for surveillance ? 1. C

Which of the following is/are most relevant for surveillance ?

1. CCTV
2. Key control
3. Access control

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

1 only

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023

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The correct answer is D) 1 only. Surveillance involves monitoring activities. CCTV (Closed-Circuit Television) is a direct and primary tool for visual surveillance. Key control and access control are measures to manage who can enter specific areas; they are part of overall security and access management but are not forms of surveillance themselves, which focuses on observation and monitoring of behaviour or events.

Surveillance is the act of observing or monitoring. CCTV performs this function directly. Access control and key control prevent or restrict access but do not primarily involve observation.

A comprehensive security system often integrates surveillance (like CCTV) with access control (like card readers or key systems) and other measures. However, when distinguishing the primary function, only CCTV from the list is fundamentally a surveillance technology.

5. Which of the following statements about fences is/are correct ? 1.

Which of the following statements about fences is/are correct ?

1. Fences are the first line of protection
2. Fence posts should be placed at least 30 feet apart
3. Anti-climb paints should be used in fences as an additional measure of security

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

1 only

1, 2 and 3

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023

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The correct answer is A) 1 and 3 only. Statement 1 is correct as fences serve as the primary physical barrier and the first line of protection in layered security. Statement 3 is correct as anti-climb paints are used as an additional security measure on fences. Statement 2 is incorrect; fence posts are typically placed much closer than 30 feet (usually 8-10 feet apart) for structural integrity and security effectiveness.

Security fences are outer perimeter barriers, and their effectiveness relies on proper construction (including post spacing) and supplementary measures like anti-climb paint.

Standard security fencing involves posts placed relatively close together to maintain tension, stability, and prevent easy distortion or penetration. 30 feet spacing would make the fence highly vulnerable. Anti-climb paints add a deterrent and detection layer to physical barriers.

6. Under the CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965, an appeal can be filed against which

Under the CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965, an appeal can be filed against which one of the following orders ?

An order enhancing any penalty imposed under Rule 11

Any order made by the President

Any order passed by an inquiring authority in the course of an inquiry under Rule 14

Any order of an interlocutory nature or of the nature of a step-in-aid of the final disposal of a disciplinary proceeding, other than an order of suspension

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023

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The correct answer is A) An order enhancing any penalty imposed under Rule 11. Under the CCS (CCA) Rules, 1965 (specifically Rule 23), an appeal lies against an order enhancing any penalty imposed under Rule 11 (which lists the penalties).

Appeals under CCS (CCA) Rules are generally allowed against final orders imposing penalties or significantly affecting service conditions, but not typically against interlocutory orders or orders by the President.

Rule 23 of the CCS (CCA) Rules enumerates the list of orders against which an appeal may be preferred. This list includes orders imposing penalties, orders of suspension, and importantly, orders made by an appellate authority enhancing a penalty. Orders made by the President are generally not appealable under these rules. Interlocutory orders during an inquiry (except suspension) are usually not appealable until the final order is passed.

7. During the deputation, the officer on deputation shall be governed by

During the deputation, the officer on deputation shall be governed by the provisions of the CISF Act and CISF Rules. Which of the following rule(s) shall not apply during the period of deputation ?

Rule 58, Rule 59 and Rule 61

Rule 59, Rule 61 and Rule 71

Rule 58, Rule 59 and Rule 71

Rule 59 only

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023

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The correct answer is C) Rule 58, Rule 59 and Rule 71. During deputation (often referred to as Foreign Service in service rules), rules related to specific types of leave (like Earned Leave under Rule 58 and Half Pay Leave/Commuted Leave under Rule 59) and the rules governing Foreign Service itself (Rule 71) as defined by the parent department (CISF) typically do not apply. The service conditions, including leave and pay, are instead governed by the terms of deputation or the rules of the borrowing organization.

When a member of a force like CISF is on deputation to another department or organization, the rules of the borrowing department or the specific terms of deputation usually supersede the parent department’s rules regarding service conditions like leave and deputation itself.

Rule 58 of CISF Rules, 1969 deals with Earned Leave. Rule 59 deals with Half Pay Leave and Commuted Leave. Rule 71 deals with Foreign Service (Deputation). These are precisely the kinds of service condition rules that would be governed by the borrowing entity’s regulations or specific deputation terms, rather than the parent force’s standard rules, while disciplinary rules generally continue to apply.

8. The confinement of any enrolled member of the CISF within the precinct

The confinement of any enrolled member of the CISF within the precinct of any barrack, lines or camp for the time being occupied by any detachment of the force is called :

Arrest

Open Arrest

Close Arrest

Wrongful Confinement

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023

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The correct answer is B) Open Arrest. The confinement of an enrolled member within the precinct of any barrack, lines, or camp occupied by a detachment of the force, while still within the confines of the post/unit area, is typically referred to as Open Arrest in military and paramilitary forces like the CISF.

Open Arrest is a form of disciplinary confinement where a service member is restricted to the limits of the camp, station, or unit area, but not confined to a specific building or room like in Close Arrest.

Arrest is the general term for taking someone into custody. Close Arrest involves stricter confinement, often to quarters or a guard room. Wrongful Confinement is illegal detention. Open Arrest allows limited movement within the designated area (barrack, camp, lines) but prevents leaving it, fitting the description provided.

9. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List I (Old designation)	List II (Revised designation As per CISF (Amendment) Act, 1983)
A. Security Guard	1. Naik
B. Security Officer	2. Constable
C. Head Security Guard	3. Head Constable
D. Senior Security Guard	4. Assistant Commandant

2 4 3 1

2 3 4 1

1 3 4 2

1 4 3 2

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023

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The correct answer is A) 2 4 3 1. The revised designations as per CISF (Amendment) Act, 1983 correspond to the old designations as follows: Security Guard (Old) -> Constable (Revised), Security Officer (Old) -> Assistant Commandant (Revised), Head Security Guard (Old) -> Head Constable (Revised), Senior Security Guard (Old) -> Naik (Revised).

The CISF (Amendment) Act, 1983 introduced revised designations aligning them more closely with standard paramilitary/police ranks, reflecting a restructuring of the force’s hierarchy.

The hierarchy in paramilitary/police forces typically moves from Constable, Naik, Head Constable, Assistant Sub-Inspector/Sub-Inspector, Inspector, and then officer ranks like Assistant Commandant. The mapping reflects the old ranks being replaced by corresponding standard ranks. Security Guard was the entry-level rank (Constable), Head Security Guard was a supervisory non-gazetted rank (Head Constable), Senior Security Guard was between these (Naik), and Security Officer was an officer rank (Assistant Commandant).

10. Prior information on which of the following issues is/are essential fo

Prior information on which of the following issues is/are essential for foot patrolling ?

Topography of the area
Population density of the area
Location of the terrorist camps

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 only

1, 2 and 3

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2023

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The correct answer is D) 1, 2 and 3. All three factors – topography, population density, and location of terrorist camps (or potential threat locations) – are essential prior information for effective and safe foot patrolling.

Effective foot patrolling requires comprehensive intelligence about the patrol area to plan routes, assess risks, identify potential threats, and manage interactions with the environment and population.

Topography influences mobility, visibility, and potential cover/concealment. Population density helps in understanding the usual activity levels and identifying anomalies. Knowing the location of potential threats, such as terrorist camps or areas of known criminal activity, is crucial for planning patrol patterns, resource allocation, and ensuring officer safety.