21. Which one of the following statements regarding disqualification of MP

Which one of the following statements regarding disqualification of MPs and MLAs on grounds of defection is not correct ?

These provisions are listed in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
A member may be disqualified on grounds of defection.
Disqualification on grounds of defection does not apply in case of merger.
All questions regarding disqualification on grounds of defection are referred to the Election Commission of India.
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017
The statement that is NOT correct is D. According to the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution (Anti-defection Law), the final authority to decide on questions regarding disqualification on grounds of defection is the presiding officer of the House (Speaker in the case of Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assembly, Chairman in the case of Rajya Sabha and State Legislative Council), not the Election Commission of India. Statements A, B, and C are correct descriptions of the anti-defection law provisions.
The presiding officer of the legislature has the authority to decide on disqualification cases under the anti-defection law.
The Tenth Schedule was added to the Constitution by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985. An exception to disqualification is provided in case of a merger if at least two-thirds of the members of a legislative party agree to merge with another party.

22. The principle that the Constitution of India has a ‘basic structure’ o

The principle that the Constitution of India has a ‘basic structure’ or ‘features’ which could not be amended was laid down in which one of the following judgements ?

Shankari Prasad vs Union of India (1951)
Golak Nath vs State of Punjab (1967)
Keshavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala (1973)
Minerva Mills vs Union of India (1980)
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017
The landmark judgement of the Supreme Court in Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala (1973) laid down the doctrine of the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution. The court held that while Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution, it cannot alter its basic structure or essential features.
The Basic Structure Doctrine limits the Parliament’s amending power, ensuring that the fundamental principles and essential features of the Constitution are protected.
The cases Shankari Prasad (1951) and Golak Nath (1967) dealt with the Parliament’s power to amend Fundamental Rights, leading up to the formulation of the basic structure doctrine in Kesavananda Bharati. The Minerva Mills case (1980) further strengthened and applied the doctrine.

23. In May 2016, INSV Mhadei set sail for a voyage to Port Louis in Maurit

In May 2016, INSV Mhadei set sail for a voyage to Port Louis in Mauritius. Which one of the following statements about this voyage is not correct ?

This was the first open-ocean voyage of the Indian Navy's all women crew of the Mhadei.
It was a training voyage.
The voyage was flagged off from Goa.
It was skippered by Lieutenant P. Swathi.
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017
The statement that is NOT correct is D. The voyage of INSV Mhadei to Port Louis, Mauritius in May 2016 was skippered by Lieutenant Commander Vartika Joshi, not Lieutenant P. Swathi. Lieutenant P. Swathi was part of the crew for the subsequent Navika Sagar Parikrama circumnavigation attempt, also skippered by Lt Cdr Vartika Joshi. Statement A is correct; this was the first open-ocean voyage for an all-women crew of the Indian Navy. Statement B is correct as these voyages serve as training. Statement C is correct; INSV Mhadei is based in Goa, and the voyage was flagged off from there.
The 2016 voyage of INSV Mhadei to Mauritius marked the first major ocean voyage undertaken by an all-women crew of the Indian Navy.
The crew of the 2016 voyage later formed the core team for the Navika Sagar Parikrama, an all-women circumnavigation expedition around the world on INSV Tarini (a sister vessel of Mhadei), which successfully completed the journey in 2018.

24. Which one of the following is the Official Mascot for the 2018 FIFA Wo

Which one of the following is the Official Mascot for the 2018 FIFA World Cup ?

Zabivaka
Fuleco
Zakumi
Footix
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017
The official mascot for the 2018 FIFA World Cup, which was held in Russia, was Zabivaka. Zabivaka is an anthropomorphic wolf.
Zabivaka was chosen as the mascot through a public online vote.
The name ‘Zabivaka’ means “the one who scores” in Russian. Other mascots listed are from previous World Cups: Fuleco (2014 Brazil), Zakumi (2010 South Africa), and Footix (1998 France).

25. Which one of the following countries was defeated by the Indian Women’

Which one of the following countries was defeated by the Indian Women’s hockey team in the final match, to lift the Asian Champions Trophy 2016 ?

Japan
Pakistan
Bangladesh
China
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017
In the final match of the Women’s Asian Champions Trophy 2016, the Indian women’s hockey team defeated China to lift the trophy. This was India’s first-ever title win in this tournament.
India secured their maiden Women’s Asian Champions Trophy title in 2016 by defeating China in the final.
The tournament was held in Singapore. India won the final match with a score of 2-1.

26. Which of the following statements about the Paris Agreement on Climate

Which of the following statements about the Paris Agreement on Climate Change is/are correct ?

  • 1. The Agreement recognizes the developing countries’ right to development and their efforts to harmonize development with environment, while protecting the interests of the most vulnerable.
  • 2. The objective of the Agreement ensures that it is mitigation-centric.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017
Statement 1 is correct. The Paris Agreement, within the framework of the UNFCCC, acknowledges the principle of equity and common but differentiated responsibilities, recognizing the developmental needs of developing countries while also addressing climate change impacts and vulnerabilities. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Paris Agreement is not solely mitigation-centric. It also has strong components on adaptation, finance, technology transfer, capacity building, and transparency.
The Paris Agreement aims to limit global warming, and its objectives cover mitigation, adaptation, and support mechanisms like finance and technology.
The central aim of the Paris Agreement is to strengthen the global response to the threat of climate change by keeping a global temperature rise this century well below 2 degrees Celsius above pre-industrial levels and to pursue efforts to limit the temperature increase even further to 1.5 degrees Celsius.

27. Who among the following is regarded as the father of ‘White Revolution

Who among the following is regarded as the father of ‘White Revolution’ in India ?

Dr. B.P. Pal
Dr. V. Kurien
Dr. S. Nagarajan
Dr. Khem Singh Gill
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017
Dr. Verghese Kurien is widely recognized as the ‘father of the White Revolution’ in India. He was the architect of Operation Flood, a program that transformed India from a milk-deficient nation into the world’s largest milk producer.
The White Revolution refers to the significant increase in milk production in India, primarily achieved through Operation Flood.
Dr. Kurien founded the Gujarat Co-operative Milk Marketing Federation (GCMMF), which manages the Amul brand, and established the Anand pattern of dairy cooperatives as a successful model for rural development.

28. Night blindness is caused by the deficiency of

Night blindness is caused by the deficiency of

Vitamin C
Vitamin A
Vitamin K
Vitamin B
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017
Night blindness is caused by the deficiency of Vitamin A.
Vitamin A is essential for the formation of rhodopsin, a pigment found in the rod cells of the retina that is crucial for vision in low light conditions. A deficiency leads to impaired night vision (nyctalopia).
Vitamin C deficiency causes Scurvy. Vitamin K deficiency can lead to blood clotting disorders. Deficiencies of various Vitamin B types cause conditions like Beriberi (B1), Pellagra (B3), anemia, etc.

29. Which one among the following is the richest source of vitamin C?

Which one among the following is the richest source of vitamin C?

Apple
Banana
Amla
Papaya
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017
Amla (Indian gooseberry) is considered one of the richest natural sources of vitamin C.
Amla contains an exceptionally high concentration of ascorbic acid (Vitamin C) compared to most other fruits.
While apple, banana, and papaya do contain vitamin C, their levels are significantly lower than that found in Amla. Citrus fruits and guavas are also known for high vitamin C content, but among the options given, Amla is superior.

30. Which one of the following materials is not present in gun powder?

Which one of the following materials is not present in gun powder?

Sulphur
Charcoal
Potassium nitrate
Barium sulphate
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CISF-AC-EXE – 2017
Barium sulphate is not present in traditional gunpowder.
Traditional black gunpowder consists of a mixture of three main components: Potassium nitrate (KNO₃), Charcoal (primarily carbon), and Sulphur (S).
Potassium nitrate acts as the oxidizer, providing oxygen for the rapid combustion of the fuel components, charcoal and sulphur. Sulphur also helps to stabilize the mixture and lowers the ignition temperature. Barium sulphate is sometimes used in pyrotechnics to produce a green color, but it is not a standard ingredient in black gunpowder propellant.