UPSC CDS-2 Archives

31. The Central Water Commission has recently entered into a collaborative

The Central Water Commission has recently entered into a collaborative agreement with which one of the following entities for flood forecasting?

[amp_mcq option1=”Skymet” option2=”Google” option3=”MetService” option4=”AccuWeather” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CDS-2 – 2018

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The Central Water Commission (CWC) entered into a collaborative agreement with Google for flood forecasting.

This partnership was announced in 2018 and aimed to use Google’s expertise in AI, machine learning, and mapping to improve flood prediction accuracy and disseminate information to the public effectively.

The collaboration involves leveraging CWC’s historical data and hydrological models with Google’s technology to generate more precise and localized flood forecasts. This initiative is part of broader efforts to enhance disaster preparedness and mitigation in India.

32. Name the Indian cricketer who is not inducted to the ICC Cricket Hall

Name the Indian cricketer who is not inducted to the ICC Cricket Hall of Fame (till July 2018).

[amp_mcq option1=”Rahul Dravid” option2=”Sunil Gavaskar” option3=”Sachin Tendulkar” option4=”Anil Kumble” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CDS-2 – 2018

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The Indian cricketer who was not inducted into the ICC Cricket Hall of Fame till July 2018 among the given options is Sachin Tendulkar.

Rahul Dravid was inducted into the ICC Hall of Fame in July 2018. Sunil Gavaskar was inducted in 2009, and Anil Kumble was inducted in 2015. Sachin Tendulkar was inducted in July 2019, which is after the specified date (July 2018).

The ICC Cricket Hall of Fame is an initiative by the International Cricket Council (ICC) to honour legendary cricketers who have made a significant impact on the sport. Inductions are typically announced annually.

33. Under the PRASAD Tourism Scheme, which one of the following has not be

Under the PRASAD Tourism Scheme, which one of the following has not been identified as a religious site for development?

[amp_mcq option1=”Ajmer (Rajasthan)” option2=”Haridwar (Uttarakhand)” option3=”Somnath (Gujarat)” option4=”Velankanni (Tamil Nadu)” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CDS-2 – 2018

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The PRASAD (Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spiritual Augmentation Drive) scheme is a flagship initiative of the Ministry of Tourism, Government of India, focused on the integrated development of pilgrimage destinations. Checking the official lists of cities identified and included under the PRASAD scheme since its launch in 2015 shows that Ajmer, Haridwar, and Somnath are all listed as identified sites for development under the scheme. Velankanni (specifically, the Shrine of Our Lady of Health) is also listed as a PRASAD destination. However, based on some lists prevalent around 2017-2018, while Ajmer, Somnath and Velankanni were identified, Haridwar was not listed among the initial or early additions, although it was added later. Assuming the question refers to such a specific period or list where Haridwar was not yet included while others were, Haridwar would be the answer that was “not among” the sites identified at that time. *Note: As of recent official lists, all four sites are included in the PRASAD scheme, which suggests the question might be based on historical data or a specific subset of the list not readily available.* However, given the options and typical UPSC question structure, one option must be the intended answer based on the source material used. Historically, Haridwar was included later than Ajmer and Velankanni.

– PRASAD is a scheme for the development of pilgrimage sites by the Ministry of Tourism.
– Ajmer, Somnath, and Velankanni are included in the list of PRASAD destinations.
– While Haridwar is now also a PRASAD destination, based on some historical lists from around 2017-18, it was not included at that specific time, unlike the other three options presented.

The PRASAD scheme aims to provide world-class infrastructure for pilgrims and tourists visiting these sites, including improved connectivity, parking, public conveniences, sound and light shows, and tourist amenities. The list of identified sites has been expanded over time since the scheme’s inception.

35. Which one of the following is correct about ‘Aaykar Setu’?

Which one of the following is correct about ‘Aaykar Setu’?

[amp_mcq option1=”It is a mechanism for achieving excellence in public sector delivery related to GST.” option2=”With the use of a mobile app, it facilitates online payment of taxes.” option3=”It is a communication strategy designed to collect information and build a database of tax defaulters.” option4=”It enables electronic filing and processing of import and export declarations.” correct=”option2″]

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UPSC CDS-2 – 2018

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‘Aaykar Setu’ is a mobile application developed by the Income Tax Department of India. ‘Aaykar’ means Income Tax, and ‘Setu’ means bridge. The app serves as a bridge for taxpayers, providing them with information, facilitating online payment of taxes, linking Aadhaar with PAN, accessing Tax Return Preparer (TRP) services, and other relevant services. Therefore, it facilitates online payment of taxes using a mobile app.

– ‘Aaykar Setu’ is an initiative by the Indian Income Tax Department.
– It is a mobile app and web portal aimed at easing taxpayer services.
– It facilitates online payment of taxes, information access, and other services.

Aaykar Setu was launched in 2017. It integrates various services available to taxpayers through a single platform, enhancing convenience and accessibility. It is specifically related to Income Tax (Direct Taxes) and not GST (Indirect Taxes) or import/export procedures.

36. According to the updated World Bank data for 2017, India is the sixth

According to the updated World Bank data for 2017, India is the sixth biggest economy of the world (in terms of GDP). Which one of the following is not ahead of India?

[amp_mcq option1=”Japan” option2=”UK” option3=”France” option4=”Germany” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CDS-2 – 2018

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According to World Bank data for 2017, India was the sixth largest economy in the world by nominal GDP. The economies ranked ahead of India in 2017 were the United States, China, Japan, Germany, and the United Kingdom. France was ranked seventh, having been overtaken by India in 2017. Therefore, among the given options, France was not ahead of India in terms of GDP in 2017.

– In 2017, India was the world’s sixth largest economy by nominal GDP.
– The countries ahead of India in 2017 included USA, China, Japan, Germany, and UK.
– France was ranked seventh in 2017, behind India.

GDP rankings can fluctuate slightly year-to-year due to economic growth rates, exchange rates, and other factors. The relative positions of economies like France, UK, and India have seen changes over recent years. The question specifically refers to the 2017 data, where India was confirmed to have moved ahead of France.

37. Ace athlete Neeraj Chopra is an accomplished player in

Ace athlete Neeraj Chopra is an accomplished player in

[amp_mcq option1=”Hammer throw” option2=”Javelin throw” option3=”Shot put throw” option4=”Discus throw” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CDS-2 – 2018

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Neeraj Chopra is a renowned Indian athlete who specialises in the Javelin throw. He is an Olympic Gold medallist (Tokyo 2020) and a World Champion (2023) in this event, making him one of India’s most successful track and field athletes.

– Neeraj Chopra is an Indian athlete.
– His primary sport is Javelin throw.

Neeraj Chopra’s achievements include winning gold medals at the 2020 Tokyo Olympics, 2023 World Athletics Championships, 2018 Asian Games, and 2018 Commonwealth Games, all in the men’s javelin throw event.

38. Which one of the following statements regarding the Human Rights Counc

Which one of the following statements regarding the Human Rights Council is not correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”It is an inter-governmental body within the United Nations system made up of all members of the UN.” option2=”It is responsible for the promotion and protection of all human rights around the globe.” option3=”It replaced the former United Nations Commission on Human Rights.” option4=”It is made up of 47 UN Member States which are elected by the UN General Assembly.” correct=”option1″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CDS-2 – 2018

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The Human Rights Council is indeed an inter-governmental body within the United Nations system responsible for the promotion and protection of all human rights around the globe (Statement B is correct). It was established by the UN General Assembly in 2006 to replace the former United Nations Commission on Human Rights (Statement C is correct). The Human Rights Council is made up of 47 UN Member States, which are elected by the UN General Assembly for staggered three-year terms (Statement D is correct). It is *not* made up of all members of the UN; only 47 elected members serve on the Council at any given time.

– The Human Rights Council is an inter-governmental UN body responsible for human rights protection.
– It replaced the UN Commission on Human Rights in 2006.
– It consists of 47 elected member states, not all UN members.

Members of the Human Rights Council are elected based on equitable geographical distribution, with seats allocated among regional groups. Members are eligible for re-election for one additional term. The Council holds regular sessions throughout the year and conducts the Universal Periodic Review (UPR) mechanism, which reviews the human rights records of all 193 UN Member States.

39. Which one of the following statements regarding the Universal Declarat

Which one of the following statements regarding the Universal Declaration of Human Rights is not correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”The UN General Assembly adopted the Human Rights Charter on 10th December, 1948.” option2=”Some of the provisions of the Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Constitution of India are similar to the provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.” option3=”The Right to Property is not a part of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.” option4=”India is a signatory to the Universal Declaration of Human Rights.” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CDS-2 – 2018

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The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly on 10th December, 1948, in Paris (Statement A is correct). Many provisions of the Fundamental Rights in Part III of the Indian Constitution are indeed similar to rights enshrined in the UDHR, reflecting shared principles (Statement B is correct). India was a signatory to the UN resolution that adopted the UDHR (Statement D is correct). Article 17 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights explicitly states: “(1) Everyone has the right to own property alone as well as in association with others. (2) No one shall be arbitrarily deprived of his property.” Therefore, the Right to Property *is* a part of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights. The statement that the Right to Property is *not* a part of the UDHR is incorrect.

– The UDHR was adopted by the UN General Assembly on Dec 10, 1948.
– Many Indian Fundamental Rights align with UDHR provisions.
– India is a signatory to the UDHR.
– The Right to Property is included in the UDHR (Article 17).

While the Right to Property is included in the UDHR, its status in national legal systems varies. In India, the right to property was a Fundamental Right until the 44th Amendment Act, 1978, which removed it from Part III and made it a legal right under Article 300A in Part XII of the Constitution.

40. Which one of the following regarding the ordinance-making power of the

Which one of the following regarding the ordinance-making power of the Governor is not correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”It is not a discretionary power.” option2=”The Governor may withdraw the ordinance anytime.” option3=”The ordinance power can be exercised when the Legislature is not in session.” option4=”The aid and advice of ministers is not required for declaring the ordinance.” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CDS-2 – 2018

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The ordinance-making power of the Governor is granted under Article 213 of the Constitution. This power can be exercised when the State Legislature or either of the Houses (if bicameral) is not in session, and the Governor is satisfied that circumstances exist which render it necessary for them to take immediate action. As established by Supreme Court judgments (like the Cooper case, 1970, and Krishna Kumar Singh case, 2017), the Governor exercises this power not in their discretion, but on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers. Therefore, the statement that the aid and advice of ministers is not required for declaring the ordinance is incorrect.

– The Governor’s ordinance-making power is exercised on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers.
– This power is not a discretionary power of the Governor.
– An ordinance can be issued only when the legislature is not in session and the circumstances require immediate action.
– The Governor can withdraw the ordinance at any time.

An ordinance promulgated by the Governor has the same force and effect as an Act of the State Legislature. However, every such ordinance must be laid before the State Legislature when it reassembles and ceases to operate at the expiration of six weeks from the reassembly, or if before the expiration of that period a resolution disapproving it is passed by the Legislative Assembly and agreed to by the Legislative Council (if any), upon the passing of the resolution or, as the case may be, on the resolution being agreed to by the Council.