UPSC CDS-2 Archives

31. Consider the following statements about the administrative measures of

Consider the following statements about the administrative measures of Shivaji:

1. The scheme of Ashta Pradhan (eight ministers) was completed and announced at the time of Shivaji’s coronation with regulations and duties properly defined.
2. Shivaji introduced Marathi in place of Persian and coined Sanskrit technical terms for administrative purposes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option3″]

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Statement 1 is incorrect. The Ashta Pradhan Mandai (Council of Eight Ministers) system was in existence before Shivaji’s formal coronation in 1674. Their roles became more clearly defined and their positions gained greater prestige at the time of the coronation, which formalized Shivaji’s sovereignty, but the scheme itself was not initiated or completed *at* the coronation.
Statement 2 is correct. Shivaji actively promoted the use of Marathi in administration, replacing Persian, which was common under Mughal influence. He also commissioned the compilation of a dictionary, ‘Rajavyavaharakosha’, to replace Persian and Arabic terms with Sanskrit equivalents for administrative purposes.

Shivaji’s administrative system was well-organized, featuring a council of ministers (Ashta Pradhan) and a focus on local language for administration.
The Ashta Pradhan were advisors, not hereditary officers, and were accountable to Shivaji.

The eight ministers in the Ashta Pradhan included the Peshwa (Prime Minister), Amatya/Mazumdar (Finance Minister), Waqianavis (Superintendent), Sumant/Dabir (Foreign Secretary), Sachiv/Surunavis (Home Secretary), Pandit Rao (Ecclesiastical Head), Nyayadhish (Chief Justice), and Senapati (Commander-in-Chief).

32. Consider the following statements about the condition of widows in the

Consider the following statements about the condition of widows in the 18th century India:

1. Raja Sawai Jai Singh of Amber promoted widow remarriage.
2. Maratha General Parshuram Bhau promoted widow remarriage.
3. Raja Ram Mohan Roy opposed Sati.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”1 and 3 only” option3=”2 and 3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option2″]

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Statement 3 is correct. Raja Ram Mohan Roy was a staunch opponent of the practice of Sati and played a crucial role in its abolition in 1829 through the efforts of Lord William Bentinck.
Statement 1 is generally considered correct by some historical interpretations, which suggest that Raja Sawai Jai Singh II of Amber (Jaipur) took measures against social evils and showed interest in reforms, potentially including some efforts towards discouraging practices like child marriage and encouraging widow remarriage, although these efforts were not as widely documented or impactful as later movements.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Maratha General Parshuram Bhau Patwardhan was primarily a military figure and there is no significant historical evidence linking him to the promotion of widow remarriage.
Given that statement 3 is definitely correct and there is no option for ‘3 only’, and based on the possibility that statement 1 is considered correct by the source of the question due to Jai Singh II’s general reformist inclination, option B (1 and 3 only) is the most plausible answer among the given choices.

Social reform efforts in India spanned centuries and involved various individuals and groups addressing issues like Sati and widow remarriage.
Ram Mohan Roy was a pivotal figure in the movement against Sati.

Later reformers like Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar made significant contributions to the movement for widow remarriage, which was eventually legalized by the Hindu Widows’ Remarriage Act, 1856.

33. Which of the following statements, as per the Information Technology A

Which of the following statements, as per the Information Technology Act, 2000, is/are correct ?

1. This Act provides that electronic signature is legally valid in the same manner as the handwritten signature.
2. Both the Central Government and State Governments have been given the power to make rules with respect to electronic signature.

Select the answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option1″]

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Statement 1 is correct. Section 4 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, provides legal recognition for electronic records, and Section 5 provides legal recognition for electronic signatures, stating that where any law requires a signature, an electronic signature shall be deemed to satisfy the requirement.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The primary power to make rules regarding the type of electronic signatures, the manner and format of digital signatures, eligibility of certifying authorities, etc., rests with the Central Government under various sections of the Act (e.g., Section 10, Section 87). While Section 88 allows State Governments to make rules regarding matters specified by the State Government, the core regulatory framework for electronic signatures as defined and validated by the Act is governed by Central Government rules. The statement implies both have equal or similar rule-making power “with respect to electronic signature” itself, which is not accurate; the technical and legal framework is set centrally.

The IT Act, 2000, is the principal law in India dealing with cybercrime and e-commerce, granting legal validity to electronic interactions.
Electronic signatures are legally equivalent to handwritten signatures under this Act.

The Act defines “electronic signature” broadly, which includes digital signatures using asymmetric crypto system and hash function, as well as other electronic authentication techniques specified by the Central Government. The power to issue licenses to Certifying Authorities for electronic signatures is also vested with the Central Government.

34. As per Article 371G of the Constitution of India, special provisions h

As per Article 371G of the Constitution of India, special provisions have been made with respect to the state of Mizoram. Accordingly, no Act of Parliament shall apply on certain matters unless the Legislative Assembly of Mizoram so decides by a resolution. Which one of the following matters is not covered under this Article ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Religious or social practices of the Mizos” option2=”Mizo customary law and procedure” option3=”Administration of civil and criminal justice involving decisions according to Mizo customary law” option4=”Ownership and transfer of natural resources” correct=”option4″]

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The correct option is D) Ownership and transfer of natural resources.

Article 371G of the Constitution of India contains special provisions for the State of Mizoram. It stipulates that no Act of Parliament regarding certain matters shall apply to Mizoram unless the State Legislative Assembly decides by a resolution. The matters covered under Article 371G are:
(i) religious or social practices of the Mizos,
(ii) Mizo customary law and procedure,
(iii) administration of civil and criminal justice involving decisions according to Mizo customary law, and
(iv) ownership and transfer of **land**.

Option D, “Ownership and transfer of natural resources,” is a broader term. Article 371G specifically mentions “land”, which is a type of natural resource, but does not explicitly cover all natural resources in general (e.g., minerals, water resources, etc.) under this protective clause in the same way as land. Therefore, the ownership and transfer of natural resources *in general* is the matter not covered under this Article in the specific terms listed.

Article 371G was inserted by the Constitution (Fifty-third Amendment) Act, 1986, which granted statehood to Mizoram. These special provisions are aimed at protecting the unique identity, culture, and customary laws of the Mizo people and giving the state legislature control over key matters affecting them. The control over land ownership and transfer is a crucial aspect of protecting tribal rights and preventing alienation of tribal land.

35. Which one of the following organizations challenged the constitutional

Which one of the following organizations challenged the constitutionality of Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code in the Supreme Court of India ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Naz Foundation (India) Trust” option2=”Bachpan Bachao Andolan” option3=”Sambhav Foundation India” option4=”ActionAid India” correct=”option1″]

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The correct option is A) Naz Foundation (India) Trust.

Naz Foundation (India) Trust was the non-governmental organization that filed a public interest litigation (PIL) in the Delhi High Court challenging the constitutional validity of Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code, which criminalized consensual sexual acts between adults of the same sex. The Delhi High Court read down Section 377 in 2009, decriminalizing such acts. This judgment was later overturned by the Supreme Court in 2013 (Suresh Kumar Koushal vs. NAZ Foundation), which re-criminalized these acts. However, the Naz Foundation’s legal battle was pivotal in bringing the issue to the forefront. Subsequently, other petitions led to the Supreme Court’s landmark judgment in 2018 (Navtej Singh Johar vs. Union of India), which finally decriminalized consensual adult homosexual acts.

Bachpan Bachao Andolan is known for its work against child labour and trafficking. ActionAid India is part of a global federation working against poverty and injustice. Sambhav Foundation India is involved in various social initiatives. Only Naz Foundation is primarily associated with the legal challenge to Section 377 based on LGBTQ+ rights.

36. ‘Bharat Parv’ was organized by the Government of India during which of

‘Bharat Parv’ was organized by the Government of India during which of the following programmes ?

1. Republic Day 2024
2. National Film Festival 2024
3. Cannes Film Festival 2024

Select the answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”2 and 3 only” option3=”1 and 3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option4″]

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The most plausible option is A) 1 and 2 only.

Bharat Parv is an annual event organized by the Government of India, primarily by the Ministry of Tourism, to celebrate India’s Republic Day. It is typically held from January 26th to 31st near India Gate, Delhi. Therefore, Statement 1 (Republic Day 2024) is a direct and well-established association. While a direct, prominent link between Bharat Parv and the National Film Festival (a separate event, usually the awards ceremony held later in the year) or Cannes Film Festival (an international event) is not widely publicized, option A implies a connection between Bharat Parv and Statement 2 as well. Given the options provided, and the certainty of Statement 1, Option A is the most likely intended answer, assuming there was some element of showcasing Indian cinema or related activities within Bharat Parv 2024 that the question setter considered a link to ‘National Film Festival’. Statement 3 (Cannes Film Festival) is unrelated to Bharat Parv.

Bharat Parv aims to showcase the diversity of India through cultural performances, handicrafts, food festivals, and highlighting the Republic Day tableaux. The event is open to the public and serves as a significant platform for promoting domestic tourism and national integration. The link to the National Film Festival (Statement 2) is not readily apparent from general reports and might refer to a specific, perhaps minor, inclusion of film-related content or promotion within the broader cultural showcase, or the question might have an ambiguity.

37. In which of the following matters placed before the UN General Assembl

In which of the following matters placed before the UN General Assembly, a resolution by two-thirds majority of the members present and voting is required ?

1. Admission of new members to the UN
2. Election of the non-permanent members of the Security Council
3. Election of members of the Economic and Social Council

Select the answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”2 and 3 only” option3=”1 and 3 only” option4=”1, 2 and 3″ correct=”option4″]

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The correct option is D) 1, 2 and 3.

Article 18 of the United Nations Charter specifies that decisions of the General Assembly on “important questions” require a two-thirds majority of the members present and voting. This list of important questions explicitly includes:
1. The admission of new Members to the United Nations.
2. The election of the non-permanent members of the Security Council.
3. The election of the members of the Economic and Social Council.
Therefore, resolutions on all three matters listed in the question require a two-thirds majority vote in the UN General Assembly.

Important questions also include topics like recommendations concerning the maintenance of international peace and security, the suspension or expulsion of members, questions related to the trusteeship system, and budgetary matters. Decisions on all other questions are made by a simple majority of the members present and voting.

39. Which of the following statements with regard to the Shanghai Cooperat

Which of the following statements with regard to the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) is/are correct ?

1. The official languages of the SCO are Russian and Chinese.
2. The SCO enjoys observer status in the UN General Assembly.
3. The SCO consists of 13 member states.

Select the answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”1 and 3″ option3=”1 and 2″ option4=”2 and 3″ correct=”option3″]

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The correct option is C) 1 and 2.

Statement 1 is correct. The official working languages of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) are Russian and Chinese.
Statement 2 is correct. The SCO was granted observer status in the UN General Assembly in 2004. It also collaborates with various other international organizations.
Statement 3 is incorrect. As of mid-2024, the SCO has 9 full member states: China, India, Iran, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Pakistan, Russia, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan. It does not consist of 13 member states. There are also Observer States (Afghanistan, Belarus, Mongolia) and Dialogue Partners.

The SCO is a major regional organization focused on political, economic, and security cooperation. India and Pakistan became full members in 2017. Iran became the ninth full member in 2023. The organization addresses issues like terrorism, separatism, extremism, and promotes regional development and connectivity.

40. Arrange the following agreements between India and Pakistan in chronol

Arrange the following agreements between India and Pakistan in chronological order :

Tashkent Declaration
Indus Water Treaty
Agreement on the Prohibition of Attack Against Each Other’s Nuclear Installations and Facilities
Agreement on Reducing the Risk from Accidents Relating to Nuclear Weapons

Select the answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1, 2, 3, 4″ option2=”2, 3, 1, 4″ option3=”2, 1, 3, 4″ option4=”1, 4, 2, 3″ correct=”option3″]

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The correct option is C) 2, 1, 3, 4.

Let’s arrange the agreements chronologically:
1. **Indus Water Treaty:** Signed on September 19, 1960.
2. **Tashkent Declaration:** Signed on January 10, 1966. This followed the Indo-Pakistan War of 1965.
3. **Agreement on the Prohibition of Attack Against Each Other’s Nuclear Installations and Facilities:** Signed on December 31, 1988, and came into force in 1991.
4. **Agreement on Reducing the Risk from Accidents Relating to Nuclear Weapons:** Signed on February 21, 2007.

The chronological order is thus 2, 1, 3, 4.

These agreements are significant milestones in India-Pakistan relations. The Indus Water Treaty, despite conflicts, has largely remained in force. The Tashkent Declaration aimed to restore friendly relations after the 1965 war but was marred by subsequent events. The nuclear agreements are confidence-building measures crucial for managing nuclear risks between the two countries.