UPSC CDS-2 Archives

1. Which of the following statements about the philosopher Shankara is/ar

Which of the following statements about the philosopher Shankara is/are true?

1. Shankara espoused a form of Vedanta called Advaita.
2. He elaborated on the philosophy of Gaudapada.
3. Shankara tried to demonstrate that the Upanishads and Brahmasutras contain a unified, systematic philosophy.
4. Shankara founded the Amanaya Mathas.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

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1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3

3 and 4

4 only

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Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CDS-2 – 2016

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Statement 1, 2, and 3 are true. Statement 4 is also traditionally considered true, but given the options, 1, 2 and 3 are the most directly related to Shankara’s philosophical contributions and lineage, making option B the most probable correct answer in this context, implying that statement 4 might be considered less central or debated compared to the others for the purpose of this question.

Shankara (Adi Shankaracharya) is the foremost proponent of Advaita Vedanta. He built upon the philosophical foundation laid by his Paramaguru (Guru’s Guru), Gaudapada. A major part of his work involved writing extensive commentaries on the principal Upanishads, the Brahmasutras, and the Bhagavad Gita (collectively known as the Prasthanatrayi) to demonstrate their underlying unity and consistency with the Advaita philosophy. The establishment of the four cardinal Mathas (monastic centres) in Sringeri, Dwaraka, Puri, and Badrinath is traditionally attributed to Shankara, aiming to consolidate the Advaita tradition across India, and these are often referred to as Amanaya Mathas.

While all four statements are widely accepted facts about Shankara, the question asks about the ‘philosopher’ Shankara. Statements 1, 2, and 3 focus specifically on his philosophical school, its roots, and his method of interpreting scriptures to establish his system. Statement 4 pertains more to his organizational role in consolidating the monastic order and propagating Advaita. In some analyses or examinations, statements directly related to philosophy might be prioritized. However, traditionally, founding the Mathas is considered integral to propagating his philosophy.

2. Who among the following won the Men’s Singles Title in the Australian

Who among the following won the Men’s Singles Title in the Australian Open Tournament, 2016?

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Jamie Murray

Bruno Soares

Novak Djokovic

Andy Murray

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UPSC CDS-2 – 2016

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Novak Djokovic won the Men’s Singles Title in the Australian Open Tournament in 2016.

– Novak Djokovic defeated Andy Murray in the final to win the 2016 Australian Open Men’s Singles title.
– This was Djokovic’s sixth Australian Open title and marked the beginning of his dominant performance in Grand Slams that year.
– Andy Murray was the runner-up in the 2016 tournament.
– Jamie Murray and Bruno Soares won the Men’s Doubles title at the 2016 Australian Open.

Novak Djokovic’s victory in 2016 was part of a remarkable run where he held all four Grand Slam titles simultaneously, a feat dubbed the ‘Nole Slam’. He continued his success at the French Open, Wimbledon, and US Open that year (winning the French Open and Wimbledon, and reaching the final of the US Open).

3. Recently the Government of India cleared the proposal for the producti

Recently the Government of India cleared the proposal for the production of 18 indigenous ‘Dhanush’ artillery guns to be produced in India by

Indian Army

US Army

Indian Ordnance Factory Board

Indian and US Army jointly

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The Government of India cleared the proposal for the production of 18 indigenous ‘Dhanush’ artillery guns to be produced by the Indian Ordnance Factory Board.

– Dhanush is a 155 mm, 45-calibre towed howitzer.
– It is the first domestically produced artillery gun of this calibre.
– It was developed by the Ordnance Factory Board (OFB) after receiving technology transfer from Bofors (now BAE Systems) during the acquisition of FH77B howitzers in the 1980s.
– The production is handled by the concerned Ordnance Factories under the OFB (now part of the corporatized entity Advanced Weapons and Equipment India Limited – AWEIL).

Dhanush was subjected to extensive trials before being cleared for bulk production. It is considered a significant step towards indigenization in the defence sector, often referred to as ‘Swadeshi Bofors’. The order mentioned in the question pertains to one of the initial batches for the Indian Army.

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4. Consider the following statement: “If you feel you are trapped in a bl

Consider the following statement:
“If you feel you are trapped in a black hole, don’t give up. There is a way out.”
Who among the following made the above statement?

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Albert Einstein

Stephen Hawking

C. V. Raman

Abdus Salam

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UPSC CDS-2 – 2016

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The statement, “If you feel you are trapped in a black hole, don’t give up. There is a way out,” was made by physicist Stephen Hawking.

– Stephen Hawking was a theoretical physicist and cosmologist known for his groundbreaking work on black holes and the origin of the universe.
– Despite his severe physical disability (ALS), he continued his scientific research and public engagement throughout his life.
– This particular quote reflects his scientific understanding of black holes and can also be interpreted metaphorically about facing difficulties in life.

Stephen Hawking’s major scientific contributions include his theorems on gravitational singularities in the framework of general relativity and the theoretical prediction that black holes emit radiation, often called Hawking radiation. He authored popular science books like ‘A Brief History of Time’.

5. Neil O’Brien, who died recently, was a famous

Neil O’Brien, who died recently, was a famous

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journalist

billiards player

dramatist

quiz master

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UPSC CDS-2 – 2016

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Neil O’Brien, who died in 2016, was famously known as a quiz master.

– Neil O’Brien was a prominent Indian educationist and quiz master.
– He is widely considered a pioneer of quizzing in India.
– He was also a Member of Parliament, representing the Anglo-Indian community in the Lok Sabha.

Apart from his contributions to quizzing and education, Neil O’Brien was also associated with the Oxford University Press India as Managing Director. His legacy in the field of quizzing is significant, inspiring generations of quiz enthusiasts in the country.

6. Which one of the following statements is not correct with respect to

Which one of the following statements is not correct with respect to protection of individuals being tried for offences?

A confession can never be used as evidence against the accused.

The accused must have violated an existing law.

An accused cannot be tried and punished for the same offence again.

The quantum of punishment must be provided in law as it existed on the date of commission of an offence.

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UPSC CDS-2 – 2016

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The statement that “A confession can never be used as evidence against the accused” is not correct with respect to the protection of individuals being tried for offences.

– Protection against self-incrimination (Article 20(3)) states that no person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself. This means involuntary or forced confessions are inadmissible. However, voluntary confessions are admissible as evidence under certain conditions specified by law (like confessions made before a magistrate, not while in police custody, except under specific provisions like Section 27 of the Evidence Act allowing recovery based on information). Therefore, a blanket statement that *no* confession can ever be used is incorrect. (Statement A is incorrect).
– Article 20(1) prohibits ex post facto laws, meaning a person can only be convicted for violating a law that existed at the time of the offence. (Statement B is correct).
– Article 20(2) prohibits double jeopardy, meaning a person cannot be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once. (Statement C is correct).
– Article 20(1) also prohibits retrospective application of punishment, meaning the penalty imposed shall not be greater than what was prescribed by the law in force at the time the offence was committed. (Statement D is correct).

The rules regarding the admissibility of confessions in India are primarily governed by the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. Sections 24 to 30 of this Act deal with confessions. Section 25 makes confessions made to a police officer inadmissible, and Section 26 makes confessions made while in police custody inadmissible, unless made in the immediate presence of a Magistrate. Section 27 provides an exception where information leading to the discovery of a fact is given by an accused in custody, even to a police officer.

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7. A citizen of India will lose his or her citizenship if he or she 1.

A citizen of India will lose his or her citizenship if he or she

1. renounces Indian citizenship
2. voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country
3. marries a citizen of another country
4. criticizes the Government

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1, 2 and 3

2, 3 and 4

1 and 2 only

1 and 4

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Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CDS-2 – 2016

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A citizen of India will lose his or her citizenship if he or she renounces Indian citizenship or voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country.

– The Citizenship Act, 1955, prescribes three ways of losing Indian citizenship: Renunciation, Termination, and Deprivation.
– Renunciation (Section 8): Any citizen of India of full age and capacity can declare his wish to renounce his Indian citizenship. (Point 1 is correct).
– Termination (Section 9): Indian citizenship is automatically terminated if a citizen voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country. India does not allow dual citizenship. (Point 2 is correct).
– Marrying a citizen of another country does not automatically lead to the loss of Indian citizenship. The Indian citizen retains their citizenship unless they choose to acquire the citizenship of their spouse’s country (which would then fall under Termination). (Point 3 is incorrect).
– Criticizing the Government is a fundamental right (freedom of speech and expression) and does not lead to the loss of citizenship. Deprivation of citizenship by the government is possible only under very specific circumstances (e.g., disloyalty to the Constitution, unlawfully trading with enemy during war, obtaining citizenship by fraud, continuous residence outside India for seven years without registration), none of which include mere criticism. (Point 4 is incorrect).

Deprivation is a compulsory termination of citizenship by the government, applicable only to citizens by registration, naturalization, or by operation of Section 5(1)(a) of the Act (persons of Indian origin residing outside India). It cannot apply to citizens by birth.

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8. Which of the following fundamental rights as enshrined in the Constitu

Which of the following fundamental rights as enshrined in the Constitution of India belong only to the citizens?

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1. Article 19 (Protection of right to freedom of speech)
2. Article 21 (Protection of life and personal liberty)
3. Article 15 (Prohibition of discrimination)
4. Article 16 (Equality of opportunity)

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1, 2 and 3

2, 3 and 4

1, 3 and 4

1 and 4 only

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Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CDS-2 – 2016

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The fundamental rights enshrined in the Constitution of India that belong only to citizens are Article 19 (Protection of right to freedom of speech), Article 15 (Prohibition of discrimination), and Article 16 (Equality of opportunity).

– Fundamental rights are available to ‘persons’ (both citizens and foreigners) or only to ‘citizens’, depending on the article.
– Article 19 (Protection of six rights regarding freedom of speech, assembly, association, movement, residence, and profession) is available only to citizens. (Point 1 is correct).
– Article 21 (Protection of life and personal liberty) is available to all ‘persons’, i.e., both citizens and non-citizens. (Point 2 is incorrect).
– Article 15 (Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth) is available only to citizens. (Point 3 is correct).
– Article 16 (Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment) is available only to citizens. (Point 4 is correct).

Other fundamental rights available only to citizens are Article 29 (Protection of interests of minorities) and Article 30 (Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions). Rights available to both citizens and foreigners include Article 14 (Equality before law and equal protection of laws), Article 20 (Protection in respect of conviction for offences), Article 21A (Right to elementary education), Article 22 (Protection against arrest and detention), Article 23 (Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour), Article 24 (Prohibition of employment of children), Article 25 (Freedom of conscience), Article 26 (Freedom to manage religious affairs), Article 27 (Freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion of any particular religion), and Article 28 (Freedom as to attendance at religious instruction).

9. The basic structure doctrine with regard to the Constitution of India

The basic structure doctrine with regard to the Constitution of India relates to

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1. the power of judicial review
2. the judgment in Kesavananda Bharati case (1973)
3. the constraints on Article 368 of the Constitution of India
4. the judgment in Golaknath case (1967)

Select the correct answer given below.

1, 2 and 3 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

1 and 3 only

2 and 4 only

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CDS-2 – 2016

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The basic structure doctrine with regard to the Constitution of India relates to the power of judicial review, the judgment in Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), and the constraints on Article 368 of the Constitution of India.

– The basic structure doctrine was propounded by the Supreme Court in the landmark *Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala* case in 1973. (Point 2 is correct).
– This doctrine holds that the Parliament, under Article 368, can amend any part of the Constitution, including fundamental rights, but it cannot alter the ‘basic structure’ or essential features of the Constitution. This imposes constraints on the amending power under Article 368. (Point 3 is correct).
– The doctrine itself is enforced and interpreted by the judiciary through its power of judicial review. While judicial review wasn’t explicitly listed as part of the basic structure in the original judgment, it is considered an essential feature in subsequent judgments (like *Minerva Mills* case) as it is the means to uphold the basic structure. (Point 1 is correct).
– The *Golaknath vs State of Punjab* case (1967) ruled that Parliament could not amend fundamental rights, but it did not formulate the basic structure doctrine. The *Kesavananda Bharati* case modified the *Golaknath* ruling, stating that fundamental rights could be amended, but not the basic structure. (Point 4 is incorrect).

Elements identified as part of the basic structure by the Supreme Court in various judgments include the supremacy of the Constitution, the republican and democratic form of government, the secular character of the Constitution, separation of powers, federal character of the Constitution, unity and integrity of the nation, judicial review, harmony and balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles, and the rule of law.

10. What form of Shiva is most prominent in the Brihadeshvara Temple built

What form of Shiva is most prominent in the Brihadeshvara Temple built by the Chola dynasty?

Harihara

Bhairava

Rudra

Tripurantaka

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Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CDS-2 – 2016

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The most prominent form of Shiva worshipped in the Brihadeshvara Temple is represented by the massive Shiva Lingam. While not explicitly listed as ‘Lingam’ or ‘Shiva’, among the given options representing aspects or manifestations of Shiva, Rudra is closely associated with the powerful and supreme cosmic form represented by the Lingam.

– The Brihadeshvara Temple at Thanjavur, built by Rajaraja I of the Chola dynasty, is dedicated to Shiva.
– The central deity is a colossal Shiva Lingam, known as Peruvudaiyar or Rajarajeshwaram Udaiyar.
– While the Lingam is the primary object of worship, the question asks about the ‘form’ of Shiva. Rudra is an ancient Vedic deity associated with Shiva, representing powerful and sometimes fierce aspects, fitting the grandeur of the temple’s main deity.
– Other options like Harihara (syncretic Vishnu-Shiva), Bhairava (fierce manifestation), and Tripurantaka (destroyer of three cities) represent specific iconographic forms or aspects, whereas Rudra can refer to the fundamental, powerful nature of Shiva as the supreme being worshipped in the main shrine.

The temple complex contains numerous sculptures depicting various forms and narratives of Shiva, including Tripurantaka. However, the principal deity in the sanctum sanctorum is the Lingam, symbolizing the formless universal principle of Shiva. In the context of representing the supreme deity through one of the given names, Rudra is the most appropriate choice among the options provided.

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