UPSC CDS-2

11. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code

Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

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List-I
(Historian)		 List-II
(Book)
A. Sumit Sarkar 1. The Rise and Growth of Economic Nationalism in India
B. Shahid Amin 2. A Rule of Property for Bengal
C. Ranajit Guha 3. The Swadeshi Movement in Bengal, 1903-1908
D. Bipan Chandra 4. Event, Metaphor, Memory—Chauri Chaura, 1922-1992

Code :

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A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CDS-2 – 2016
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The correct matching of historians with their books is A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1.
– Sumit Sarkar is renowned for his detailed study of the Swadeshi Movement in Bengal.
– Shahid Amin’s work ‘Event, Metaphor, Memory’ is a micro-history exploring the Chauri Chaura incident from multiple perspectives.
– Ranajit Guha, a founder of Subaltern Studies, authored ‘A Rule of Property for Bengal’ which critically examines the Permanent Settlement.
– Bipan Chandra is a leading historian of modern India, known for his work on economic nationalism and the freedom struggle.
These historians represent different schools of thought within Indian historiography, particularly regarding nationalism and subaltern perspectives. Sumit Sarkar and Bipan Chandra are often associated with nationalist and Marxist interpretations, while Ranajit Guha and Shahid Amin are key figures in the Subaltern Studies group, focusing on the agency of common people.

12. The All India Census was 1. first attempted in 1872 2. regularly

The All India Census was

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  • 1. first attempted in 1872
  • 2. regularly undertaken since 1881
  • 3. always undertaken as a five-year exercise

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

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1 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
1, 2 and 3
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UPSC CDS-2 – 2016
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Statement 1 is correct: The first census in India on a near-all India basis was attempted non-synchronously between 1867 and 1872. The first synchronous census was conducted in 1881.
Statement 2 is correct: Regular decennial censuses (conducted every ten years) have been undertaken in India since 1881.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The All India Census is a decennial exercise, meaning it is undertaken every ten years, not every five years.
The census in India has a history dating back to the late 19th century, with regular, synchronous counts conducted every decade since 1881.
The Census of India is the largest single source of a variety of statistical data on different characteristics of the people of India. The responsibility of conducting the decennial census rests with the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India, under the Ministry of Home Affairs.

13. Which one of the following sources tells us about women protesting aga

Which one of the following sources tells us about women protesting against the infidelity of their husbands or the neglect of the wife and children by the male head of the household?

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The Kitab-ul-Hind
Documents belonging to the Village Panchayats of Rajasthan, Gujarat and Maharashtra
Sculptures from Mandor
The Ain-i-Akbari of Abul Fazl
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Documents belonging to Village Panchayats of Rajasthan, Gujarat and Maharashtra are the most likely source among the given options to contain information about social disputes, including women protesting against the infidelity of their husbands or neglect by the male head of the household. Village panchayats historically served as local judicial and administrative bodies that dealt with community disputes, including family matters, marriage, and social norms. Records from such bodies would document grievances and the process of resolution or protest.
Village-level administrative and judicial records, such as those maintained by panchayats, provide valuable insights into social dynamics, disputes, and protests at the grassroots level.
While other sources like Kitab-ul-Hind and Ain-i-Akbari provide broader information on Indian society and administration during their respective periods, they are less likely to contain specific details of individual domestic disputes and protests in villages. Sculptures, while providing visual information about life and culture, are generally not a source for documented protests or legal grievances. Archival records from local bodies like village panchayats are a direct source for such socio-legal matters.

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14. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

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BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile made by India and Russian Federation.
The name BrahMos came from two rivers, Brahmaputra of India and Moskva of Russia.
Indian military scientists were capable of integrating BrahMos cruise missile with Sukhoi-30 MKI fighter.
Defence Research and Development Organization is the manufacturer of Sukhoi-30 MKI fighter.
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UPSC CDS-2 – 2016
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Statements A, B, and C are correct about the BrahMos missile. It is a supersonic cruise missile developed in a joint venture between India (DRDO) and Russia (NPOM). Its name is derived from the Brahmaputra river of India and the Moskva river of Russia. Indian scientists successfully integrated and test-fired the BrahMos-A (Air-launched) variant from a Sukhoi-30 MKI fighter aircraft. Statement D is incorrect. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) manufactures the Sukhoi-30 MKI fighter aircraft under license in India, not the Defence Research and Development Organization (DRDO). DRDO is involved in research, design, and development of defence technologies and systems, including missiles, but the manufacturing of the Su-30 MKI is done by HAL.
BrahMos is a product of Indo-Russian defence collaboration, while the Sukhoi-30 MKI is manufactured in India by HAL under license from Russia’s Sukhoi Corporation.
BrahMos is one of the fastest supersonic cruise missiles in the world. It can be launched from submarines, ships, aircraft, or land. HAL is India’s state-owned aerospace and defence company responsible for manufacturing aircraft, helicopters, avionics, and their components.

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15. Which one of the following statements about reusable space vehicle of

Which one of the following statements about reusable space vehicle of ISRO is not correct?

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In June 2016, ISRO successfully launched India's first reusable space vehicle.
The space vehicle was launched from Satish Dhawan Space Centre at Sriharikota in Andhra Pradesh.
The reusable launch vehicle climbed to a height of 65 km before automatically steering back for landing.
The vehicle was initially boosted by a rocket that contained liquid fuel.
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Statements A, B, and C are correct descriptions of ISRO’s first reusable launch vehicle test flight (RLV-TD) conducted in June 2016. It was India’s first reusable space vehicle demonstrator (Hypersonic Flight Experiment – HEX). It was launched from Sriharikota. It reached an altitude of about 65 km before descending and making a simulated landing in the Bay of Bengal. Statement D is incorrect. The RLV-TD was initially boosted by a solid rocket motor (HS9), not a rocket containing liquid fuel.
The ISRO RLV-TD test in 2016 was a significant step towards developing reusable launch vehicle technology, demonstrating hypersonic flight, aero-thermodynamic characterisation, and autonomous navigation for return flight.
The RLV-TD is a scaled-down technology demonstrator. Subsequent tests are planned to evaluate technologies like landing and re-entry. The eventual goal is a two-stage-to-orbit (TSTO) fully reusable vehicle. The initial boost from a solid motor was sufficient for this experimental flight to reach the desired altitude and velocity for the demonstration.

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16. Which of the following voted for Brexit in June 2016?

Which of the following voted for Brexit in June 2016?

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England and Scotland
England and Wales
Scotland and Northern Ireland
Wales and Northern Ireland
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UPSC CDS-2 – 2016
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In the UK’s referendum on European Union membership held in June 2016 (Brexit), the results showed a clear split across the constituent countries. England and Wales voted to leave the European Union, while Scotland and Northern Ireland voted to remain.
The Brexit vote highlighted a significant divergence in political opinion among the four nations of the United Kingdom.
The final result of the referendum was 51.9% voting to leave and 48.1% voting to remain. In England, 53.4% voted to leave. In Wales, 52.5% voted to leave. In Scotland, 62.0% voted to remain. In Northern Ireland, 55.8% voted to remain.

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17. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

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Centre for Science and Environment in a recent study found that a number of commonly available brands of prepackaged breads tested positive for potassium bromate and potassium iodate.
Food Safety and Standards Authority of India recommended to the Health Ministry to remove potassium bromate from the list of permissible food additives.
The Union Government banned the use of potassium bromate as a food additive on the basis of the above recommendation.
Potassium bromate is a neurotoxin.
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Statements A, B, and C accurately reflect events surrounding the controversy regarding potassium bromate in bread in India around 2016. The Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) did publish a study finding potassium bromate in bread. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) did recommend removing it from the list of permissible additives. The Union Government subsequently banned its use as a food additive. However, statement D is incorrect. While potassium bromate is considered harmful, it is primarily classified as a potential carcinogen (Group 2B by the International Agency for Research on Cancer – IARC), not a neurotoxin. There is no significant evidence classifying it primarily as a neurotoxin.
Potassium bromate was identified as a potential health hazard (specifically, a potential carcinogen) when used as a food additive, leading to its ban in India.
Potassium bromate was traditionally used as a flour improver, helping in dough development and giving a soft texture to bread. Due to its classification as a potential carcinogen and its ban in numerous countries, calls were made for its prohibition in India, which resulted in the FSSAI recommendation and subsequent government ban in 2016.

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18. Which of the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly o

Which of the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly of India is/are correct?

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  1. The Assembly was elected indirectly by the members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies.
  2. The elections were held on the basis of Universal Adult Franchise.
  3. The scheme of election was laid down by the Cabinet Delegation.
  4. The distribution of seats was done on the basis of the Mountbatten Plan.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1 only
1, 2 and 3
2 and 4
1 and 3 only
This question was previously asked in
UPSC CDS-2 – 2016
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Statement 1 is correct: The members of the Constituent Assembly were elected indirectly by the members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies based on proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The elections were NOT held on the basis of Universal Adult Franchise. The electorate for the provincial assemblies was limited.
Statement 3 is correct: The scheme for the composition and election of the Constituent Assembly was laid down by the Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The distribution of seats was done on the basis of population as per the Cabinet Mission Plan, not the Mountbatten Plan. Seats were allocated to each province and princely state (or group of states) in proportion to their respective population, roughly one seat for every million people. The Mountbatten Plan dealt with the partition of India.
The Constituent Assembly’s composition was largely determined by indirect election via provincial legislatures and nomination by princely states, based on the framework provided by the Cabinet Mission Plan.
The Constituent Assembly consisted of representatives from both British Indian provinces and Princely States. 292 members were elected through Provincial Legislative Assemblies, 4 were representatives from Chief Commissioners’ Provinces, and not more than 93 seats were allocated to Princely States.

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19. On 26th November, 1949, which of the following provisions of the Const

On 26th November, 1949, which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India came into effect?

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  1. Citizenship
  2. Elections
  3. Provisional Parliament
  4. Fundamental Rights

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2, 3 and 4
1, 2 and 3
1 and 3 only
1 and 2 only
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The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th November, 1949. On this date, certain provisions came into force immediately, while the bulk of the Constitution came into effect on 26th January, 1950 (celebrated as Republic Day). The provisions that came into effect on November 26, 1949, included those related to:
1. Citizenship (Articles 5, 6, 7, 8, 9)
2. Elections (Articles 324)
3. Provisional Parliament (Articles 379, 380, 388)
4. Temporary and transitional provisions (Articles 366, 367, 391, 392, 393)
Fundamental Rights (Articles 12-35) are part of the main body of the Constitution that came into force on 26th January, 1950.
While the Constitution was adopted on November 26, 1949, only specific provisions necessary for the immediate functioning of the state and transition came into effect on that date. The full commencement, including Fundamental Rights and DPSPs, was on January 26, 1950.
Article 394 of the Constitution explicitly lists the articles that came into force on 26th November 1949. These are Articles 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 60, 324, 366, 367, 379, 380, 388, 391, 392 and 393. The remaining provisions came into force on 26th January 1950.

20. Which among the following Acts were repealed by Article 395 of the Con

Which among the following Acts were repealed by Article 395 of the Constitution of India?

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  1. The Government of India Act, 1935
  2. The Indian Independence Act, 1947
  3. The Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act, 1949
  4. The Government of India Act, 1919

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

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1 and 2 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3 only
1, 2, 3 and 4
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UPSC CDS-2 – 2016
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Article 395 of the Constitution of India expressly repealed the following Acts:
1. The Indian Independence Act, 1947.
2. The Government of India Act, 1935, and all enactments amending or supplementing it.
The Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act, 1949 was an enactment supplementing the Government of India Act, 1935 (in matters related to appeals to the Privy Council), and was therefore also repealed by Article 395.
The Government of India Act, 1919 was largely repealed and replaced by the Government of India Act, 1935, and was therefore not directly repealed by Article 395.
Article 395 of the Constitution repealed the key legislative instruments that governed India prior to the adoption of the Constitution, specifically the 1947 Independence Act and the 1935 Government of India Act.
The purpose of Article 395 was to transition from the pre-constitutional legal framework to the new constitutional order. By repealing these acts, the Constitution established itself as the supreme law of the land. The Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act, 1949 was enacted by the Constituent Assembly itself functioning as the provisional parliament, establishing the Supreme Court of India as the final court of appeal, replacing the Privy Council. This Act was also deemed necessary to be repealed by the Constitution.

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