UPSC CDS-2 Archives

11. Which of the following Ramsar Wetland sites is not situated in any o

Which of the following Ramsar Wetland sites is not situated in any of the Union Territories of India ?

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Hokera Wetland

Point Calimere Wildlife and Bird Sanctuary

Tsomoriri Lake

Wular Lake

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Answer is Wrong!

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UPSC CDS-2 – 2024

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Hokera Wetland is located in Jammu and Kashmir, which is a Union Territory. Tsomoriri Lake is located in Ladakh, which is a Union Territory. Wular Lake is located in Jammu and Kashmir, which is a Union Territory. Point Calimere Wildlife and Bird Sanctuary is located in Tamil Nadu, which is a State of India. Therefore, Point Calimere is the Ramsar site among the options that is not situated in a Union Territory.

India has numerous Ramsar sites designated under the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands. It is important to know the geographical location (State or UT) of significant Ramsar sites.

As of late 2023, India has a total of 75 Ramsar sites. Knowing the administrative division (State/UT) of these sites is useful for geography-based questions.

12. Cumulonimbus clouds develop from which among the following clouds ?

Cumulonimbus clouds develop from which among the following clouds ?

Cumulus congestus clouds

Cumulus and Nimbostratus clouds

Cumulus and Altostratus clouds

Cirrocumulus clouds

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UPSC CDS-2 – 2024

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Cumulonimbus clouds are towering, vertically developing clouds that are often associated with thunderstorms. They grow from cumulus clouds, specifically from the stage known as cumulus congestus, which are towering cumulus clouds. The rapid vertical development fueled by strong updrafts transforms cumulus congestus into cumulonimbus.

Clouds are classified by their form and altitude. Cumulus clouds are puffy, heap-like clouds that develop vertically. Cumulonimbus is the most vertically developed type of cumulus cloud.

Nimbostratus is a low, layered cloud that produces continuous rain or snow. Altostratus is a middle-altitude, layered cloud. Cirrocumulus is a high-altitude cloud composed of ice crystals, appearing as small puffy masses in rows. These are distinct cloud types and not developmental stages of cumulonimbus.

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13. Consider the following statements regarding transportation functions a

Consider the following statements regarding transportation functions associated with important ports :

1. Singapore functions both as a port of call and an entrepot.
2. Karwar in India is an example of a naval port.
3. Dover in England is an example of an outpost.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1 only

3 only

1 and 3

1 and 2

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Answer is Wrong!

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UPSC CDS-2 – 2024

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Statement 1 is correct: Singapore is strategically located and serves as a major port of call for ships needing services and also as an entrepot where goods are re-exported, functioning as a key transshipment hub in Southeast Asia. Statement 2 is correct: Karwar is one of the major naval bases of the Indian Navy, located on the west coast of India. Statement 3 is incorrect: Dover in England is primarily known as a ferry port connecting the UK to France. While important, it’s not typically classified as an “outpost” in port geography; an outpost might refer to a remote port or a base serving a distant operation.

Ports serve various functions including ports of call (stopping for supplies/fuel), entrepots (transshipment and re-export), naval ports (military use), and specialized ports (oil, fishing, ferry).

Entrepot ports are vital in global trade networks as they facilitate the movement of goods between different regions without them being imported for domestic consumption in the entrepot country. Singapore, Hong Kong, and Rotterdam are classic examples of entrepot ports.

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14. Consider the following statements regarding the rivers of India : 1

Consider the following statements regarding the rivers of India :

1. The Barak River, the head stream of the Meghna, rises in the hills of Meghalaya.
2. The Ghaggar River does not drain out to the sea and gets lost in the Rajasthan desert.
3. Puthimari and Manas are important tributaries of the Brahmaputra.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1 only

2 only

1 and 2

2 and 3

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CDS-2 – 2024

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Let’s examine each statement regarding the rivers of India:
1. The Barak River, the head stream of the Meghna, rises in the hills of Meghalaya. This is incorrect. The Barak River rises in the hills of Manipur, near its border with Nagaland and Mizoram. It flows through Assam and then enters Bangladesh.
2. The Ghaggar River does not drain out to the sea and gets lost in the Rajasthan desert. This is correct. The Ghaggar-Hakra River system is an intermittent river that flows only during the monsoon season. The Ghaggar flows through Haryana and Rajasthan and disappears in the Thar Desert, believed to be a remnant of the ancient Sarasvati river.
3. Puthimari and Manas are important tributaries of the Brahmaputra. This is correct. The Manas River is a major transboundary river that originates in Bhutan and flows through Assam before joining the Brahmaputra. The Puthimari River is a northern tributary of the Brahmaputra in Assam.
Based on this evaluation, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

– Barak River originates in Manipur hills.
– Ghaggar River is inland drainage, lost in the Rajasthan desert.
– Manas and Puthimari are tributaries of the Brahmaputra.

The river systems of India can be broadly classified into Himalayan rivers and Peninsular rivers. Himalayan rivers are perennial and often have large catchment areas. The Barak-Meghna system is part of the larger Ganga-Brahmaputra-Meghna delta. The Ghaggar is an example of inland drainage found in arid and semi-arid regions. The Brahmaputra has numerous tributaries originating from the Himalayas and the surrounding hills.

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15. Which of the following pairs of Himalayan Glaciers and their location

Which of the following pairs of Himalayan Glaciers and their location is/are correctly matched ?

1.	Siachen	–	Nubra Valley Region
2.	Chungphar	–	Kumaon-Garhwal Region
3.	Zemu	–	Central Nepal Region
4.	Gasherbrum	–	Pir Panjal Range

Select the answer using the code given below :

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1 only

1 and 2

2 and 3

3 and 4

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Answer is Wrong!

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UPSC CDS-2 – 2024

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Let’s evaluate each pair of Himalayan Glaciers and their location:
1. Siachen – Nubra Valley Region: The Siachen Glacier is located in the Eastern Karakoram range. The meltwater from the glacier forms the Nubra River, which flows through the Nubra Valley. Thus, the glacier is directly related to and located within the geographical context of the Nubra Valley. This pair is correctly matched.
2. Chungphar – Kumaon-Garhwal Region: The Chungphar Glacier is located in the Karakoram range, specifically in the Gilgit-Baltistan region. Glaciers in the Kumaon-Garhwal region include Gangotri, Milam, Pindari, etc. This pair is incorrectly matched.
3. Zemu – Central Nepal Region: The Zemu Glacier is located in Sikkim, India, at the base of Mount Kanchenjunga. It is the source of the Teesta River. Glaciers in Central Nepal include Langtang, Khumbu, etc. This pair is incorrectly matched.
4. Gasherbrum – Pir Panjal Range: The Gasherbrum peaks and glaciers are located in the Karakoram range, part of the Baltoro Muztagh region. The Pir Panjal Range is part of the Lesser Himalayas, much further south. This pair is incorrectly matched.
Only pair 1 is correctly matched.

– Siachen Glacier is in the Eastern Karakoram and feeds the Nubra River in the Nubra Valley.
– Chungphar Glacier is in the Karakoram.
– Zemu Glacier is in Sikkim, India.
– Gasherbrum Glacier is in the Karakoram.
– Pir Panjal Range is in the Lesser Himalayas.

Himalayan glaciers are major sources of water for many of the great rivers of South Asia. They are found across various ranges of the Himalayas and Karakoram, including the Great Himalayas, Lesser Himalayas, and Trans-Himalayas (like Karakoram). Their location and health are crucial for regional water security and climate studies.

16. Consider the following pairs : 1. Gajapati – Name of a powerful

Consider the following pairs :

1.	Gajapati	–	Name of a powerful Dynasty in Orissa
2.	Ashvapati	–	Deccan Sultans
3.	Narapati	–	Rayas of Vijayanagara

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

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1 only

2 only

1, 2 and 3

None of the above

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Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CDS-2 – 2024

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Let’s examine each pair:
1. Gajapati: Name of a powerful Dynasty in Orissa. This is correctly matched. The Gajapati Dynasty ruled Kalinga (modern Odisha) from 1434 to 1541 CE. ‘Gajapati’ literally means ‘Lord of Elephants’, referring to the strength of their elephant corps.
2. Ashvapati: Deccan Sultans. This is correctly matched. ‘Ashvapati’ means ‘Lord of Horses’. The Deccan Sultanates (like the Bahmanis and their successors) were known for their strong cavalry forces, often importing horses from Arabia and Persia. This title was associated with them in contrast to other regional powers.
3. Narapati: Rayas of Vijayanagara. This is correctly matched. ‘Narapati’ means ‘Lord of Men’ or King, referring to the large infantry forces maintained by the Vijayanagara rulers (Rayas). Medieval sources, particularly foreign travellers like Duarte Barbosa, often used this tripartite division (Gajapati of Orissa, Ashvapati of the Deccan, and Narapati of Vijayanagara) to describe the major powers in the South during the 15th and 16th centuries, based on the perceived strength of their respective armies (elephants, cavalry, and infantry).
All three pairs are correctly matched according to this historical context and common descriptions of the period’s major southern Indian powers.

– Gajapati = Lord of Elephants, associated with Orissa.
– Ashvapati = Lord of Horses, associated with Deccan Sultans.
– Narapati = Lord of Men, associated with Vijayanagara rulers (Rayas).
– These titles reflect the primary military strength associated with each kingdom/group.

This classification highlights the different military compositions and strategies employed by the major powers competing for dominance in peninsular India during the post-Delhi Sultanate period. The control over different resources (elephants, horses, manpower) was crucial for military power.

17. Which of the following statements about Cabinet Mission are correct ?

Which of the following statements about Cabinet Mission are correct ?

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1. It was sent to India in 1946 to negotiate the transfer of power with the Indian leaders.
2. It proposed a two-tiered federal plan while conceding the largest measure of regional autonomy.
3. There was to be a federation of provinces and states, alongside a federal centre.
4. The individual provinces were allowed to form regional unions to which they could surrender some of their powers by mutual agreement.

Select the answer using the code given below :

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 4 only

2, 3 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

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Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CDS-2 – 2024

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Let’s examine each statement regarding the Cabinet Mission Plan (1946):
1. It was sent to India in 1946 to negotiate with Indian leaders for the transfer of power. This is correct. The mission comprised Lord Pethick-Lawrence, Sir Stafford Cripps, and A.V. Alexander.
2. It proposed a three-tiered structure: A Union of India (weak centre), Groups of provinces (Sections A, B, C), and individual provinces. This can be seen as a two-tiered federal plan above the provinces, granting significant autonomy to groups and provinces compared to the centre. This statement is correct.
3. There was to be a federation of provinces and states, alongside a federal centre. The plan proposed a Union of India embracing both British Indian provinces and Princely States, with a centre having limited powers (defence, foreign affairs, communications, and powers necessary to raise finances for these subjects). This aligns with the concept of a federation of provinces and states with a federal centre. This statement is correct.
4. The individual provinces were allowed to form regional unions (Sections A, B, C) to which they could surrender some of their powers by mutual agreement. The plan proposed grouping provinces into three sections (A, B, C) with constitution-making powers for the group and individual provinces. While initially compulsory for constitution making, the plan allowed provinces to opt out of their assigned group after the first general election under the new constitution. This implied the possibility of regional unions (groups) having powers surrendered by provinces. This statement is correct.
All the statements accurately reflect key features of the Cabinet Mission Plan.

– Cabinet Mission came in 1946 for power transfer negotiations.
– Proposed a three-tiered structure (Union, Groups, Provinces).
– Envisaged a weak federal centre with limited powers.
– Allowed provinces to form groups (regional unions) and potentially surrender powers.
– Aimed to keep India united but failed to satisfy both Congress and the Muslim League fully.

The Cabinet Mission Plan rejected the demand for a full-fledged sovereign Pakistan but proposed the grouping of provinces based on Muslim majority (Sections B and C) and Hindu majority (Section A) areas, which the Muslim League initially accepted. The Congress also accepted the plan but with reservations regarding the grouping procedure, which eventually led to its breakdown and paved the way for partition.

18. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. During the Se

Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

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1. During the Second Round Table Conference held in London in 1931, the British Government refused to accept the basic nationalist demand for freedom.
2. India was granted dominion status in 1932.
3. Viceroy Lord Willingdon adopted a policy of reconciliation with Congress.
4. The Civil Disobedience Movement was started with the breaking of salt laws.

Select the answer using the code given below :

2 and 3 only

4 only

1 and 4 only

1, 2 and 4

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Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CDS-2 – 2024

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Let’s evaluate each statement:
1. During the Second Round Table Conference (September-December 1931), the British Government did not concede the basic nationalist demand for complete freedom (Purna Swaraj). The discussions focused on constitutional reforms, including provincial autonomy and federation, but the issue of complete independence remained unresolved. This statement is correct.
2. India was not granted dominion status in 1932. Dominion status was granted in 1947 with the Indian Independence Act. The Government of India Act 1935 envisaged a federation but did not grant full dominion status immediately. This statement is incorrect.
3. Viceroy Lord Willingdon (1931-1936) followed a policy of severe repression against the nationalist movement, particularly after the failure of the Second RTC and the relaunch of the Civil Disobedience Movement. He is known for using force and banning Congress organizations. This statement is incorrect.
4. The Civil Disobedience Movement was initiated in 1930, famously starting with Mahatma Gandhi’s Dandi March (Salt March), which involved breaking the salt laws as a symbolic act of defiance against the British monopoly on salt production and taxation. This statement is correct.
Based on the evaluation, statements 1 and 4 are correct.

– Second RTC did not grant independence.
– Dominion status was granted in 1947, not 1932.
– Lord Willingdon adopted a policy of repression, not reconciliation.
– CDM started with the breaking of salt laws (Dandi March).

The Second Round Table Conference was the only one attended by Mahatma Gandhi (as the sole representative of the Congress after the Gandhi-Irwin Pact). It failed primarily due to disagreements over the issues of minority representation and the scope of future constitutional reforms. The failure led to the resumption of the Civil Disobedience Movement.

19. Consider the following statements with reference to Census in India :

Consider the following statements with reference to Census in India :

1. The first All India Census was attempted in 1872.
2. From 1881, decennial censuses became a regular feature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CDS-2 – 2024

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Both statements are correct.
1. The first attempt at an All India Census was conducted in 1872 during the tenure of Viceroy Lord Mayo. This census was not synchronous across the country and was more of a preliminary exercise.
2. The first synchronous and comprehensive decennial census was held in 1881 under Viceroy Lord Ripon. Since then, the Census of India has been conducted every ten years regularly without break, making it a consistent source of demographic data.

– First attempted census in India: 1872 (Lord Mayo).
– First synchronous decennial census: 1881 (Lord Ripon).
– Decennial censuses have been regular since 1881.

The Census is a crucial source of demographic, social, and economic data in India. It is conducted under the Census Act, 1948. The responsibility for conducting the census lies with the office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India, under the Ministry of Home Affairs. The latest census was conducted in 2011, and the next one was scheduled for 2021 but has been delayed.

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20. Which kingdom was described by Governor-General Lord Dalhousie as “A c

Which kingdom was described by Governor-General Lord Dalhousie as “A cherry that will drop into our mouth one day” ?

Delhi

Awadh

Jhansi

Gwalior

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Answer is Wrong!

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UPSC CDS-2 – 2024

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Lord Dalhousie, the Governor-General of India (1848-1856), famously described the kingdom of Awadh as “A cherry that will drop into our mouth one day.” This statement reflected his intention to annex Awadh into British India. He finally annexed Awadh in 1856 on the pretext of misgovernance by Nawab Wajid Ali Shah, despite the Nawab’s loyalty to the British.

– The quote “A cherry that will drop into our mouth one day” was made by Lord Dalhousie.
– It referred to the kingdom of Awadh.
– Awadh was annexed by the British in 1856.
– The pretext for annexation was misgovernance.

The annexation of Awadh was one of the significant causes that contributed to the Great Revolt of 1857. It angered the ruling elite of Awadh, the sepoys (many of whom came from Awadh and saw their homes treated unfairly), and the general population who faced high taxation and disruption of social structures under British rule.

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