UPSC CAPF Archives

31. Which one of the following statements about the Bhakti Movement in Sou

Which one of the following statements about the Bhakti Movement in South India is NOT correct?

The Nalayira Divyaprabandham was also known as the Tamil Veda

Andal was an Alvar

Karaikkal Ammaiyar was a devotee of Vishnu

Metal images of the saints Appar and Sundarar were made and then consecrated in a Shiva temple

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Statement C is incorrect. Karaikkal Ammaiyar was a prominent figure in the Bhakti movement in Tamil Nadu, but she was a devotee of Shiva. She is considered one of the earliest and most revered of the 63 Nayanars, the Saivite saints.

The Bhakti movement in South India saw the rise of two major groups of poet-saints: the Alvars, who were devotees of Vishnu, and the Nayanars, who were devotees of Shiva. The hymns of the Alvars were collected in the Nalayira Divyaprabandham, while the hymns of the Nayanars were compiled later into works like the Tevaram and Tiruvachakam. Both movements emphasized personal devotion and challenged some aspects of the prevailing social and religious norms.

Andal was a famous female Alvar, known for her passionate devotion to Vishnu (specifically Ranganatha). The Nalayira Divyaprabandham is highly regarded and is sometimes referred to as the Tamil Veda due to its religious significance. The practice of making and consecrating metal images of saints in temples was common, particularly within the Shaiva tradition in South India, honoring the contributions of figures like the Nayanars.

32. Which of the following is/are correct in relation to the Panchayats ?

Which of the following is/are correct in relation to the Panchayats ?

1. Only the Parliament may endow Panchayats with powers and authority
2. A state may devolve powers to Panchayats in preparation of plans for economic development and social justice
3. A state may devolve powers to Panchayats in implementation of schemes for economic develop-ment and social justice

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 only

1 and 3

2 and 3

3 only

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Statement 1 is incorrect. According to Article 243G of the Constitution, the *Legislature of a State* may, by law, endow the Panchayats with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as institutions of self-government. Parliament enacted the 73rd Constitutional Amendment, but the actual devolution of powers and responsibilities to Panchayats in relation to the subjects listed in the Eleventh Schedule is done by state legislatures. Statements 2 and 3 are correct as they directly reflect the provisions of Article 243G and the intended functions of Panchayats as institutions of self-government responsible for preparing plans for economic development and social justice and implementing schemes for the same.

Part IX of the Constitution (Articles 243 to 243-O), inserted by the 73rd Amendment Act, 1992, deals with Panchayats. Article 243G empowers state legislatures to grant powers and authority to Panchayats, including preparation of plans for economic development and social justice, and implementation of schemes for the same. The Eleventh Schedule lists 29 matters within the purview of Panchayats.

The 73rd Amendment Act provides the constitutional framework for Panchayats, making their establishment mandatory and providing for regular elections, reservation of seats, etc. However, the actual functional and financial autonomy of Panchayats depends on the laws enacted by the respective state legislatures, leading to variations in the extent of decentralization across states.

33. Which one of the following statements about the Attorney-General of In

Which one of the following statements about the Attorney-General of India is NOT correct ?

The person must be qualified to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court

He/she enjoys right of audience only in the Supreme Court and High Courts in India

He/she holds office during the pleasure of the President

He/she receives remuneration as determined by the President

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Statement B is incorrect. According to Article 76(3) of the Constitution, the Attorney-General of India has the right of audience in *all courts* in the territory of India, not just the Supreme Court and High Courts. He/she also has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of both Houses of Parliament and any joint sitting, but without the right to vote (Article 88).

The Attorney-General is the highest law officer of the Union Government. The person must be qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court (Article 76(1)). The AG holds office during the pleasure of the President and receives such remuneration as the President may determine (Article 76(4)). The AG is appointed by the President and advises the Government of India on legal matters.

The Attorney-General is not a member of the Union Cabinet. The AG is the primary legal advisor to the government but does not fall into the category of a government servant and is not debarred from private legal practice, though there are conventions and rules regarding conflicts of interest when advising the government.

34. The idea of social justice requires that 1. equal treatment be suppl

The idea of social justice requires that

1. equal treatment be supplemented with principle of proportionality
2. due and equal consideration is given to all individuals
3. equality of treatment be transcended to recognise special needs

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1, 2 and 3

1 and 3 only

2 only

2 and 3 only

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All three statements correctly describe aspects of social justice. Social justice is not merely formal equality (treating everyone exactly the same regardless of circumstances) but aims for substantive equality. This requires acknowledging historical disadvantages and existing inequalities. Statement 1 suggests supplementing equal treatment with proportionality, meaning treatment should be proportional to needs and circumstances, which aligns with addressing inequalities. Statement 2 is a basic tenet of justice – every individual deserves due and equal consideration. Statement 3 explicitly states the need to go beyond mere formal equality to recognise special needs, which is the basis for affirmative action or positive discrimination aimed at uplifting disadvantaged groups and achieving a more equitable outcome.

Social justice is concerned with the fair distribution of wealth, opportunities, and privileges within a society. It often involves addressing structural inequalities and ensuring that vulnerable groups are not disadvantaged. Key principles include equity (treating unequals unequally to achieve equality), recognition of rights, and participation.

Constitutional provisions in India, such as those related to equality (Articles 14, 15, 16) and provisions for reservations for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes, are grounded in the principle of social justice, aiming to create a more equitable society by addressing historical discrimination and social backwardness. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution lists “Justice, social, economic and political” as its first objective.

35. Which one of the following is NOT a correct feature of a Money Bill ?

Which one of the following is NOT a correct feature of a Money Bill ?

It can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha

A Deputy Speaker can also certify a Money Bill in case of office of Speaker falling vacant

A Speaker's authority is final as to whether a bill is Money Bill or not

It can be referred to a joint committee of the two Houses

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Statement D is incorrect. A Money Bill cannot be referred to a joint committee of the two Houses of Parliament. The Constitution provides a special procedure for Money Bills, where the Lok Sabha has overriding powers and the Rajya Sabha has limited scope for amendment (it can only suggest amendments, which the Lok Sabha is free to accept or reject). There is no provision for a joint sitting or joint committee for Money Bills.

Money Bills are defined in Article 110 of the Constitution. They can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha (Article 110(1)). The Speaker of the Lok Sabha certifies whether a bill is a Money Bill, and this decision is final (Article 110(3)). If the office of the Speaker is vacant, the Deputy Speaker performs this duty (Article 95(1)). The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill within 14 days with or without recommendations; if not returned, it is deemed to have been passed by both Houses.

A joint sitting of Parliament (under Article 108) is convened by the President to resolve deadlocks between the two Houses on ordinary bills, but this mechanism is not applicable to Money Bills or Constitution Amendment Bills. The limited role of the Rajya Sabha in passing Money Bills reflects the principle that the House of the People (Lok Sabha), which is directly elected by the voters, has primary control over financial matters.

36. Which one of the following statements with regard to Censure Motion is

Which one of the following statements with regard to Censure Motion is NOT correct ?

A leave of the House is required to move it

The Government is free to fix time and date for its discussion

It can also be moved against the entirety of the Council of Ministers

The Speaker decides whether the motion is in order

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The correct option is B. The government is NOT free to fix the time and date for the discussion of a Censure Motion; it takes precedence over government business once admitted.

– Option A is correct: To move a Censure Motion in Lok Sabha, the member needs to seek leave of the House. The Speaker determines if it is in order, and then if at least 50 members support it, leave is granted.
– Option B is incorrect: Once a Censure Motion is admitted and leave is granted, it is treated as a matter of urgent public importance and is given priority over normal government business. The Speaker, in consultation with the Leader of the House, fixes a date for its discussion, but the government cannot indefinitely delay or freely choose a convenient time; the discussion must take place promptly.
– Option C is correct: A Censure Motion can be moved against an individual minister, a group of ministers, or the entire Council of Ministers to express disapproval of their policy or action.
– Option D is correct: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has the authority to decide whether a motion, including a Censure Motion, is in order and admissible according to the rules of procedure.

A Censure Motion is a tool used by the Opposition in the Indian Parliament to express strong disapproval of the government’s policies or actions. Unlike a No-Confidence Motion, it does not require the government to resign even if passed, but its passage signifies a serious loss of confidence of the House and puts pressure on the government to rectify the criticized policy or action.

37. Singapore is known as Port of Call because

Singapore is known as Port of Call because

it deals in the processing and shipping of oil

it is a deep water port built away from the actual port

it is on main sea route where ships use to anchor for refueling, water-ing and taking food items

it serves the parent ports by receiving the ships which are unable to approach due to their large size

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The correct option is C. Singapore is known as a Port of Call because of its strategic location on main sea routes where ships regularly stop for various services like refueling, watering, taking food items, and other supplies.

– A Port of Call is a port where ships make scheduled stops for various purposes during their voyage, such as taking on provisions, fuel, or repairs, or for transferring cargo and passengers.
– Singapore’s location at the southern tip of the Malay Peninsula, controlling the Malacca Strait, one of the world’s busiest shipping lanes, makes it a crucial refueling and service point for international maritime traffic.
– While Singapore is also a major transshipment hub and involved in oil processing (A), the term “Port of Call” specifically highlights its role as a regular stopping point for ships en route.
– Option B describes a characteristic that might be present but isn’t the definition of a Port of Call.
– Option D describes a feeder port or a port handling ships too large for other facilities, which isn’t the primary meaning of Port of Call.

Ports of Call are vital nodes in global shipping networks, facilitating the smooth and efficient operation of maritime transport by providing necessary services to vessels traversing major routes. Singapore’s efficiency, infrastructure, and location make it one of the most prominent Ports of Call globally.

38. Which one of the following karst landforms is the largest in size ?

Which one of the following karst landforms is the largest in size ?

Polje

Uvala

Swallow Hole

Sink Hole

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The correct option is A. Among the given options, a Polje is typically the largest karst landform.

– Karst landforms are features created by the dissolution of soluble rocks, primarily limestone.
– A Swallow Hole (Ponor) is a point where surface water disappears underground, typically small in size.
– A Sink Hole (Doline) is a closed depression in the ground surface caused by dissolution or collapse, larger than a swallow hole but generally smaller than uvalas and poljes.
– An Uvala is a compound sinkhole formed by the merging of several dolines, thus larger than a single sinkhole.
– A Polje is a large, flat-floored depression in a karst region, often elongated and bounded by steep walls. They can be several kilometers long and wide and are the largest karst depressions.

Karst topography is characterized by features like sinkholes, caves, disappearing streams, and underground drainage systems. The size of karst landforms varies significantly depending on the scale and intensity of the dissolution processes.

40. Which one of the following is NOT a Mediterranean country?

Which one of the following is NOT a Mediterranean country?

Tunisia

Libya

North Sudan

Egypt

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The correct option is C. North Sudan is not a Mediterranean country.

– The Mediterranean Sea is bordered by countries in Southern Europe, North Africa, and Western Asia.
– Tunisia (A), Libya (B), and Egypt (D) are all located on the North African coast and border the Mediterranean Sea.
– Sudan (specifically North Sudan after the division) is located south of Egypt and has a coastline on the Red Sea, not the Mediterranean Sea.

The Mediterranean countries include countries like Spain, France, Italy, Greece, Turkey, Syria, Lebanon, Israel, Egypt, Libya, Tunisia, Algeria, Morocco, Malta, and Cyprus, among others. Being located on the Red Sea, Sudan is geographically distinct from the Mediterranean basin.