UPSC CAPF Archives

1. The Indian Air Force has recently acquired the AH-64E (I) – Apache Gua

The Indian Air Force has recently acquired the AH-64E (I) – Apache Guardian helicopter. The helicopter is made in

[amp_mcq option1=”India” option2=”Russia” option3=”France” option4=”USA” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2019

The AH-64E Apache Guardian helicopter is made in the USA.

The AH-64 Apache is a twin-turboshaft attack helicopter with a tandem cockpit for a two-man crew. It is manufactured by Boeing Defense, Space & Security. Boeing is an American multinational corporation.

The AH-64E Apache Guardian is one of the most advanced attack helicopters in the world. The Indian Air Force acquired a number of these helicopters to enhance its combat capabilities.

2. Which one of the following frontline destroyer of Indian Navy was deco

Which one of the following frontline destroyer of Indian Navy was decommissioned in May 2019 ?

[amp_mcq option1=”INS Rana” option2=”INS Ranjit” option3=”INS Rajput” option4=”INS Sindhushak” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2019

Download PDF Attempt Online

INS Rajput, a Kashin-class destroyer of the Indian Navy, was decommissioned in May 2019.

INS Rajput (D51) was the lead ship of the Rajput-class destroyers of the Indian Navy. Commissioned in 1980, it served the nation for 41 years before being decommissioned at Visakhapatnam on May 21, 2021. *Correction: The question states May 2019. While INS Rajput was eventually decommissioned in 2021, amongst the options provided, INS Ranjit was decommissioned in May 2019. Let’s verify the decommissioning date of INS Ranjit.* Yes, INS Ranjit (D53), also a Rajput-class destroyer, was decommissioned on 6 May 2019. The question likely refers to INS Ranjit.

The Rajput-class destroyers were built in the Soviet Union and are modified versions of the Kashin-class. They were major frontline warships of the Indian Navy for several decades. INS Rajput was the first ship to be fitted with the BrahMos missile system. INS Ranjit’s decommissioning marked the end of service for one of these long-serving destroyers.

3. The National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) aims to reduce particulate mat

The National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) aims to reduce particulate matter (PM) in at least 102 cities of India by 20% – 30% by 2024. The base year for the comparison of concentration is

[amp_mcq option1=”2015″ option2=”2016″ option3=”2017″ option4=”2018″ correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2019

Download PDF Attempt Online

The base year for comparison of PM concentration under the National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) target is 2017.

The NCAP, launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, aims to reduce particulate matter concentration by 20%-30% by 2024 in 102 non-attainment cities. The targeted reduction is calculated based on the PM levels recorded in 2017.

The programme is a long-term, time-bound national-level strategy to tackle air pollution across the country. It focuses on city-specific action plans, strengthening the monitoring network, and promoting research and technology for air quality management.

4. Which one of the following is the name given by Indian Railways to the

Which one of the following is the name given by Indian Railways to the indigenously manufactured Train 18 ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Humsafar Express” option2=”Vande Bharat Express” option3=”Ananya Express” option4=”Gatimaan Express” correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2019

Download PDF Attempt Online

The indigenously manufactured Train 18 was officially named Vande Bharat Express.

Train 18 is a semi-high-speed electric multiple-unit (EMU) train. It was designed and manufactured by the Integral Coach Factory (ICF) in Chennai under the ‘Make in India’ initiative. Following its trials, it was renamed Vande Bharat Express before its commercial launch.

The Vande Bharat Express is designed to operate at a maximum speed of 160 km/h. It is the first long-distance train with a self-propelled engine in India. It features modern amenities like GPS-based passenger information systems, automatic doors, and bio-toilets.

5. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List I (Border of Sikkim)	List II (Location in map)
A. Nepal	1
B. Bhutan	2
C. China	3
D. West Bengal	4

Code :
A) 3 2 1 4
B) 4 1 2 3
C) 4 2 1 3
D) 3 1 2 4

[amp_mcq option1=”(a)” option2=”(b)” option3=”(c)” option4=”(d)” correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2019

Download PDF Attempt Online

The correct code is D, which matches Nepal with 3, Bhutan with 1, China with 2, and West Bengal with 4.

Sikkim is bordered by Nepal to the west, Bhutan to the east, China (Tibet Autonomous Region) to the north and northeast, and the Indian state of West Bengal to the south. Assuming the numbers 1, 2, 3, and 4 correspond to locations (likely directional sides) on a map of Sikkim, the option D mapping aligns with the geographical borders: Nepal (West) matches 3, Bhutan (East) matches 1, China (North/Northeast) matches 2, and West Bengal (South) matches 4.

Sikkim is a state in Northeast India, located in the Himalayas. It is known for its diverse terrain, including Kangchenjunga, the highest peak in India and third highest on Earth. Its strategic location on the international border is significant. The border with China includes the historical Nathu La pass.

6. Consider the following statements pertaining to the Satavahanas : Sa

Consider the following statements pertaining to the Satavahanas :

Satavahana rulers were identified through metronymics
Satavahana succession to the throne was generally patrilineal

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2019

Download PDF Attempt Online

Let’s evaluate each statement about the Satavahanas:
1. Satavahana rulers were identified through metronymics: Correct. Several Satavahana rulers are known by names derived from their mothers, such as Gautamiputra Satakarni (son of Gautami) and Vashishthiputra Pulumavi (son of Vashishthi). This indicates the prominence of the mother in identifying the ruler’s lineage.
2. Satavahana succession to the throne was generally patrilineal: Correct. Despite the use of metronymics, the dynastic succession in the Satavahana kingdom was typically patrilineal, meaning the throne passed from father to son. For instance, Gautamiputra Satakarni was succeeded by his son Vashishthiputra Pulumavi. The use of metronymics highlighted the mother’s status but did not imply a system of matrilineal succession for the throne.
Both statements are correct.

– Metronymics were used to identify rulers, signifying respect for the maternal line.
– Royal succession generally followed the male line (patrilineal).

The Satavahanas were a dynasty that ruled parts of South and Central India from around the 1st century BCE to the 3rd century CE. They were important patrons of Buddhism and Brahmanism and played a significant role in promoting trade and cultural exchange. The use of metronymics among rulers is a notable feature of this dynasty, although its exact social implications regarding the position of women are debated, it clearly indicates a high status for the queens and queen mothers.

7. Which among the following statements about Mahatma Gandhi’s Satyagraha

Which among the following statements about Mahatma Gandhi’s Satyagraha is/are correct ?

It was during the course of his campaign against racialism in South Africa that Gandhiji first applied Satyagraha
The two vital ingredients of Satyagraha are ‘truth’ and ‘non-violence’
The Satyagrahi resists evil by inflicting suffering on himself and not by inflicting suffering on the opponent
In India, Satyagraha was first tried by Gandhiji in Champaran

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 4 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”4 only” option4=”1, 2, 3 and 4″ correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2019

Download PDF Attempt Online

Let’s examine each statement about Mahatma Gandhi’s Satyagraha:
1. It was during the course of his campaign against racialism in South Africa that Gandhiji first applied Satyagraha: Correct. Gandhi coined the term ‘Satyagraha’ and developed its philosophy and techniques during his struggle against racial discrimination and unjust laws faced by Indians in South Africa between 1893 and 1914.
2. The two vital ingredients of Satyagraha are ‘truth’ and ‘non-violence’: Correct. Satyagraha literally means “holding onto truth” (Satya = truth, Agraha = holding firmly to). Ahimsa (non-violence) is the indispensable means or method through which truth is pursued and attained in Satyagraha.
3. The Satyagrahi resists evil by inflicting suffering on himself and not by inflicting suffering on the opponent: Correct. A core principle of Satyagraha is that the resister voluntarily accepts suffering (tapasya) to appeal to the conscience of the oppressor and expose the injustice, rather than resorting to violence which causes suffering to the opponent.
4. In India, Satyagraha was first tried by Gandhiji in Champaran: Correct. After returning to India in 1915, Gandhi’s first major public appearance was at the Benares Hindu University in 1916. His first application of Satyagraha as a tool for protest in India was in the Champaran district of Bihar in 1917, against the oppressive indigo cultivation system.
All four statements are correct.

– Satyagraha was developed in South Africa.
– Its pillars are truth and non-violence.
– Self-suffering is a key tactic.
– Champaran was the first Satyagraha movement in India led by Gandhi.

Satyagraha was a novel approach to passive resistance, emphasizing courage, moral force, and an active search for truth. It differed from mere passive resistance in its focus on positive action and moral persuasion rather than simply obstructing the opponent. Gandhi later successfully employed Satyagraha in various movements in India, including Ahmedabad Mill Strike (1918), Kheda Satyagraha (1918), Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-22), Civil Disobedience Movement (1930-34), and Quit India Movement (1942).

8. Which of the following statements about the Arya Samaj which emerged i

Which of the following statements about the Arya Samaj which emerged in the late 19th century are correct ?

Had a very strong support base amongst the trading castes
Introduced ‘shuddhi’ or mass purification
The moderates in the Arya Samaj were headed by Hans Raj and Lajpat Rai and set up a chain of Dayanand Anglo-Vedic colleges
The Arya Samaj had fewer members than the Brahmo Samaj

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

[amp_mcq option1=”1 and 2 only” option2=”1, 2 and 3″ option3=”3 and 4 only” option4=”1, 3 and 4″ correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2019

Download PDF Attempt Online

Let’s evaluate each statement about the Arya Samaj:
1. Had a very strong support base amongst the trading castes: Correct. The Arya Samaj was particularly influential among the commercial and trading castes (like Khatris and Aroras) in Punjab and other parts of North India.
2. Introduced ‘shuddhi’ or mass purification: Correct. The Arya Samaj initiated the Shuddhi movement aimed at reconverting people who had converted from Hinduism to Islam or Christianity, thus purifying them and bringing them back into the Hindu fold.
3. The moderates in the Arya Samaj were headed by Hans Raj and Lajpat Rai and set up a chain of Dayanand Anglo-Vedic colleges: Correct. After Dayanand’s death, the Arya Samaj split into two groups: the ‘College Party’ or moderates, led by Lala Hans Raj and Lala Lajpat Rai, who favoured Western education alongside traditional Hindu teachings and established the Dayanand Anglo-Vedic (DAV) schools and colleges; and the ‘Gurukul Party’ or traditionalists, led by Swami Shraddhanand, who advocated for traditional Indian education (Gurukul system).
4. The Arya Samaj had fewer members than the Brahmo Samaj: Incorrect. While Brahmo Samaj was a pioneering reform movement, Arya Samaj, with its more assertive and revivalist approach, gained a much wider following, especially in North India, and became significantly larger than Brahmo Samaj.
Therefore, statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

– Arya Samaj was a Hindu reform movement founded by Swami Dayanand Saraswati.
– Key aspects include monotheism, rejection of idolatry, caste system rigidity, and opposition to Puranic Hinduism.
– The Shuddhi movement was a significant activity.
– A split occurred based on approach to education.

Swami Dayanand Saraswati’s slogan “Go back to the Vedas” was central to the Arya Samaj’s philosophy, advocating for a return to the purity of Vedic religion while rejecting later developments. The movement significantly contributed to social reform, education, and a sense of Hindu identity in the late 19th and early 20th centuries.

9. Consider the following figure : [Image of a circle divided into 6 sect

Consider the following figure :
[Image of a circle divided into 6 sectors with numbers 1, 2, ?, 8, 4, 12 in sectors clockwise, starting from top right]
Find out the missing number from among the following :

[amp_mcq option1=”12″ option2=”16″ option3=”32″ option4=”48″ correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2019

Download PDF Attempt Online

The numbers in the circle, starting from the top right and moving clockwise, are 1, 2, ?, 8, 4, 12.
Let’s look for patterns between adjacent numbers or opposite numbers.
Examining opposite numbers:
1 is opposite 8. Product = 1 * 8 = 8.
2 is opposite 4. Product = 2 * 4 = 8.
The missing number (?) is opposite 12. If the pattern is that the product of opposite numbers is constant (8), then ? * 12 = 8, which means ? = 8/12 = 2/3. However, 2/3 is not among the integer options.

Let’s examine the relationship between adjacent numbers. Let P(i) be the number at position i (clockwise, starting from top-right as position 1).
P1=1, P2=2, P3=?, P4=8, P5=4, P6=12.
P2 = P1 * 2 (1 * 2 = 2)
P5 = P4 / 2 (8 / 2 = 4)
P6 = P5 * 3 (4 * 3 = 12)
P1 = P6 / 12 (12 / 12 = 1)
We have the operations: x2, ?, ?, /2, x3, /12.
Let the unknown operations be xM1 and xM2:
P2 = P1 * 2
P3 = P2 * M1
P4 = P3 * M2
P5 = P4 * (1/2)
P6 = P5 * 3
P1 = P6 * (1/12)

Let’s try the options for ?.
If ? = 16 (Option B), then P3 = 16.
P3 = P2 * M1 => 16 = 2 * M1 => M1 = 8.
P4 = P3 * M2 => 8 = 16 * M2 => M2 = 8/16 = 1/2.
The sequence of multipliers between adjacent numbers becomes: 2, 8, 1/2, 1/2, 3, 1/12.
1 x 2 = 2
2 x 8 = 16
16 x 1/2 = 8
8 x 1/2 = 4
4 x 3 = 12
12 x 1/12 = 1
This sequence of operations links all numbers in the circle correctly when the missing number is 16. While the sequence of multipliers (2, 8, 1/2, 1/2, 3, 1/12) isn’t trivially patterned, it allows all given numbers and one option to fit consistently. The alternative pattern of opposite products (8) gives a non-integer result not among options. Therefore, 16 is the most likely intended answer based on finding a consistent (though complex) relationship between adjacent numbers that incorporates one of the options.

– Examine relationships between adjacent numbers or opposite numbers.
– The pattern might involve multiplication or division.
– Test options if a simple pattern isn’t immediately obvious.

Number puzzles in circular arrangements often involve relationships between adjacent elements, elements directly opposite each other, or elements at specific intervals around the circle. Sometimes, the position number itself is part of the pattern.

10. Consider the following series : 1, 9, 17, 33, 49, 73, … Identify the

Consider the following series :
1, 9, 17, 33, 49, 73, …
Identify the missing number from the following :

[amp_mcq option1=”99″ option2=”97″ option3=”95″ option4=”91″ correct=”option2″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC CAPF – 2019

Download PDF Attempt Online

The given series is 1, 9, 17, 33, 49, 73, …
Let’s find the difference between consecutive terms:
9 – 1 = 8
17 – 9 = 8
33 – 17 = 16
49 – 33 = 16
73 – 49 = 24
The sequence of differences is 8, 8, 16, 16, 24. The pattern is that each difference appears twice, and the difference increases by 8 each time (8, then 8+8=16, then 16+8=24).
Following this pattern, the next difference should also be 24.
The missing number is the last term plus the next difference: 73 + 24 = 97.

– Analyze the differences between consecutive terms to find the underlying pattern.
– The differences form a sequence of paired numbers with a constant increment.

This is a type of second-order arithmetic progression where the differences between terms follow a pattern. Recognizing the sequence of differences (8, 8, 16, 16, 24, 24…) is key to solving the puzzle.