UPSC CAPF Archives

11. With regard to Panel of Chairperson, Lok Sabha, which of the following

With regard to Panel of Chairperson, Lok Sabha, which of the following statements is/are correct ?

1. Panel of Chairperson is drawn from the ruling party only
2. Panel of Chairperson is nominated by different political parties and appointed by Speaker, Lok Sabha
3. Panel of Chairperson consists of 10 members and one of them presides over the House when both Speaker and Deputy Speaker are not there

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 and 3

2 and 3

3 only

2 only

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The correct answer is (C) 3 only.

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Panel of Chairpersons is drawn from different parties, not just the ruling party, to ensure representation and impartiality in presiding over the House.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Panel of Chairpersons is nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. While the Speaker may consult with various parties, the formal nomination is made by the Speaker, not by the parties themselves.
Statement 3 is correct: The Panel of Chairpersons consists of members, usually around 10. Any one of them can preside over the House in the absence of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker. When a member from the Panel presides, they have the same powers as the Speaker.

Rule 9 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha deals with the Panel of Chairpersons. It specifies that the Speaker shall nominate from amongst the members a panel of not more than ten chairpersons, any one of whom may preside over the House in the absence of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker.

12. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to Speaker/D

Which of the following statements are correct with regard to Speaker/Deputy Speaker, Lok Sabha ?

1. On dissolution of the Lok Sabha, both the Speaker and Deputy Speaker cease to be members of the House.
2. Both Speaker and Deputy Speaker vacate their office on dissolution of the Lok Sabha
3. Only Deputy Speaker vacates his office and Speaker shall not vacate his office until immediately before the first meeting of the Lok Sabha after dissolution

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 only

1, 2 and 3

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

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The correct answer is (A) 1 only.

Statement 1 is correct: On dissolution of the Lok Sabha, both the Speaker and Deputy Speaker cease to be members of the House, as their membership is tied to the existence of that specific Lok Sabha.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Only the Deputy Speaker vacates his office on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. The Speaker does not vacate his office until immediately before the first meeting of the Lok Sabha after the dissolution (Article 94 of the Constitution).
Statement 3 is incorrect: It correctly states that the Speaker does not vacate his office immediately, but it incorrectly states that *only* the Deputy Speaker vacates his office. While the Deputy Speaker’s *office* might technically continue until a new Deputy Speaker is elected by the new House, their *membership* of the dissolved House ceases, and consequently, they cannot perform the duties of the Deputy Speaker. The key distinction is that the Speaker remains in office until the next House meets, ensuring continuity, while the Deputy Speaker does not have this specific constitutional provision for continuity.

Article 94(c) of the Constitution of India states that the Speaker shall not vacate his office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution. There is no such provision for the Deputy Speaker in Article 94. Therefore, the Deputy Speaker’s term as a member of the House ends with dissolution, and consequently, their role as Deputy Speaker also effectively ends, although the office itself might be considered vacant rather than ‘held over’. Statement 1 is fundamentally correct because dissolution ends their term as MPs. Statement 3 highlights the continuity provision for the Speaker, which is correct, but frames it incorrectly in comparison to the Deputy Speaker in the context of vacating the *office* upon dissolution.

13. Who among the following was the first non-official member to be electe

Who among the following was the first non-official member to be elected as Speaker of the Central Legislative Assembly on 24-8-1925 ?

Vithalbhai J Patel

Muhammad Yakub

G. V. Mavalankar

Sardar Hukum Singh

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The correct answer is (A) Vithalbhai J Patel.

Vithalbhai J. Patel was elected as the first non-official Speaker of the Central Legislative Assembly on August 24, 1925. The Central Legislative Assembly was the lower house of the Indian Legislature during the British Raj. Previously, the presiding officers (Presidents) were usually officials nominated by the government. Patel’s election was a significant political event, demonstrating the growing influence of Indian nationalist leaders within the legislative framework provided by the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms (Government of India Act, 1919).

Muhammad Yakub later served as Speaker (President) after Vithalbhai Patel. G.V. Mavalankar was the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha (post-independence). Sardar Hukum Singh was also a Speaker of the Lok Sabha, serving later. Vithalbhai Patel’s election marked a crucial step towards Indian control over the legislative process.

14. According to the Delimitation Commission of India and subject to Artic

According to the Delimitation Commission of India and subject to Article 333 of the Constitution of India, what is the maximum number of members that a State Legislative Assembly may have ?

450

500

550

600

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The correct answer is (B) 500.

Article 170 of the Constitution of India deals with the composition of the Legislative Assemblies of the States. It states that the Legislative Assembly of each State shall consist of not more than five hundred, and not less than sixty, members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the State. The Delimitation Commission is responsible for redrawing the boundaries of these constituencies based on population data from the Census, ensuring that the number of seats in each assembly (within the maximum and minimum limits) reflects the population distribution.

Article 333 of the Constitution deals with the representation of the Anglo-Indian community in the Legislative Assemblies of the States. It previously allowed the Governor to nominate one member from the Anglo-Indian community if they were not adequately represented. This provision was effectively discontinued by the 104th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019, which removed the reservation for Anglo-Indians in Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies. However, the question asks about the maximum number of *members* (including elected and potentially nominated), and Article 170 sets the upper limit for elected members at 500. The question is phrased in the context of the Delimitation Commission’s work, which primarily concerns the elected seats, but the constitutional limit on the total *assembly size* based on elected members is 500.

15. On which one of the following conditions did the Marathas agree to ser

On which one of the following conditions did the Marathas agree to serve the Mughal king with a cavalry contingent of 15,000 in the early 18th century ?

Grant of the jagir of Malwa province

Control of the resources of Gujarat

The right to levy chauth and sardeshmukhi in the Deccan and South India

The right to mint coins in their own name

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The correct answer is (C) The right to levy chauth and sardeshmukhi in the Deccan and South India.

In the early 18th century, particularly after the decline of Aurangzeb and during the reign of his successors, the Mughal Empire struggled to contain the Marathas. Through negotiations and military pressure, the Marathas, under leaders like Shahu, secured the right to collect chauth (one-fourth of the revenue) and sardeshmukhi (an additional tenth) from the six subahs (provinces) of the Deccan, including Mysore, Trichinopoly, and Tanjore in South India. This right was formally granted by the Mughal Emperor Farrukhsiyar in 1719 through a treaty negotiated by the Syed Brothers, in exchange for military service and maintaining order in the Deccan. The cavalry contingent of 15,000 likely refers to the obligation associated with these rights, where the Marathas were to provide troops for the Mughal Emperor when needed.

While the Marathas aimed for control over territories like Malwa and Gujarat later, the primary condition under which they formally agreed to serve the Mughal king with a contingent in the early 18th century was the grant of revenue rights (chauth and sardeshmukhi) in the Deccan. This grant effectively legitimized the Maratha’s financial claims over vast territories nominally under Mughal control and was a major step in their rise to power. The right to mint coins in their own name was a symbol of sovereignty which they achieved much later, not as a condition for serving the Mughals.

16. Tulsidas was the author of 1. Ramcharitmanas 2. Padavali 3. Kavita

Tulsidas was the author of

1. Ramcharitmanas
2. Padavali
3. Kavitavali

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

1 and 3 only

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The correct option is D.

Statement 1 is correct: Ramcharitmanas, an epic poem based on the Ramayana, was authored by Tulsidas.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Padavali is a collection of devotional songs, primarily associated with the poet Vidyapati (Maithili language) and also Krishnadas Kaviraj Goswami (in Bengali, describing Chaitanya Mahaprabhu). It is not primarily attributed to Tulsidas.
Statement 3 is correct: Kavitavali, another important work by Tulsidas, is a collection of poems in the Kavitta metre, dealing with various aspects of Rama’s life.

Tulsidas (c. 1532–1623) was a Ramanandi Sampradaya saint and poet renowned for his devotion to the deity Rama. Besides Ramcharitmanas and Kavitavali, his other notable works include Gitavali, Dohavali, Vairagya Sandipani, and Vinaya Patrika. Vidyapati (c. 1352–1448) was a Maithili poet and a devotee of Shiva, though his Padavali contains many poems dedicated to Krishna.

17. Which one of the following statements about the religious policies of

Which one of the following statements about the religious policies of the Mughal kings is NOT correct ?

The tax on pilgrimage was abolished in 1563, and the jizya tax on non-Muslim Subjects was abolished in 1564

Akbar issues instructions to his officers to follow the policy of religious toleration

Not all Mughal emperors gave grants for the building and mainte-nance of places of worship

Grants were issued for the repair of a number of temples in the reigns of Shah Jahan and Aurangzeb, after they had been destroyed during war

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The correct option is D.

The question asks which statement about the religious policies of Mughal kings is NOT correct.
A) This statement is correct. Akbar abolished the pilgrimage tax in 1563 and the jizya tax (tax on non-Muslims) in 1564 as part of his policy of religious tolerance.
B) This statement is correct. Akbar’s policy of sulh-i kul explicitly instructed officers to follow a policy of religious toleration.
C) This statement is correct. While emperors like Akbar were known for granting funds for the building and maintenance of places of worship of different religions, later emperors, particularly Aurangzeb, adopted more restrictive policies, although even he made some grants to temples under certain circumstances. So, it is true that not all Mughal emperors consistently gave grants for all places of worship.
D) This statement is incorrect. While Shah Jahan was relatively tolerant and may have issued grants for temple repairs, Aurangzeb is generally known for policies involving temple destruction or restrictions, not for issuing grants for the repair of temples destroyed during war. His reign saw instances of temple destruction, particularly in areas annexed or during conflicts. Therefore, claiming that grants were issued for the repair of ‘a number of temples’ after destruction during war in Aurangzeb’s reign is not historically accurate as a general policy or significant practice.

Aurangzeb’s religious policy was more orthodox compared to his predecessors. While there are complex debates about the extent and nature of his policies, the statement about issuing grants for the repair of a number of temples destroyed during war does not align with the overall historical evidence regarding his approach towards temples damaged or destroyed during conflicts.

18. Consider the following statements about sulh-i kul : It means ‘absol

Consider the following statements about sulh-i kul :

It means ‘absolute peace’
It provided for freedom of expres-sion to all religions and schools of thought
The ideal of sulh-i kul was imple-mented through state policies

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1 and 2 only

1, 2 and 3

3 only

2 and 3 only

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The correct option is B.

Sulh-i kul (literally “peace with all”) was a concept formulated by Mughal emperor Akbar.
Statement 1 is correct: ‘Sulh-i kul’ translates to ‘absolute peace’ or ‘peace with all’.
Statement 2 is correct: It was based on the idea of religious tolerance and universal harmony among all people, regardless of their religion or beliefs. It aimed at peaceful coexistence and freedom of expression for all religions and schools of thought.
Statement 3 is correct: Akbar implemented the ideal of sulh-i kul through various state policies, such as the abolition of the jizya tax and the pilgrimage tax, granting freedom to build and repair places of worship, discouraging forced conversions, and appointing people from diverse religious backgrounds to positions in the state administration.

The policy of sulh-i kul contributed to the cultural and religious synthesis during Akbar’s reign and helped in building a stable empire comprising diverse populations.

19. Transition zone of varied natural vegetation occupying the boundary be

Transition zone of varied natural vegetation occupying the boundary between two adjacent and differing plant communities is known as

ecological succession

ecotone

ecological niche

climax

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The correct option is B.

An ecotone is a transition area between two biological communities. It is the zone where two communities meet and integrate, and it often contains a diversity of species characteristic of both communities, as well as some species that are unique to the transition zone itself.

Ecological succession is the process of change in the species structure of an ecological community over time. An ecological niche describes the role and position a species has in its environment. Climax community is the stable, mature stage of ecological succession. The description provided in the question accurately defines an ecotone.

20. The Cartagena Protocol, to which India is a party, is related to

The Cartagena Protocol, to which India is a party, is related to

combat the green house gasses and to reduce the global warming and climate change

biosafety, negotiated under the aegis of the Convention on Bio-logical Diversity

combat the ozone depleting sub-stances to protect the human lives from diseases

combat the phenomenon of desertification by improving dry land farming in dry regions

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The correct option is B.

The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety is an international treaty that governs the movements of living modified organisms (LMOs) resulting from modern biotechnology from one country to another. It was negotiated under the aegis of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD), adopted in 2000, and entered into force in 2003.

The Protocol seeks to protect biodiversity from the potential risks posed by LMOs. It establishes procedures for regulating the transboundary movement of LMOs, particularly those destined for intentional introduction into the environment. India is a party to both the Convention on Biological Diversity and the Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety.