UPSC SO-Steno Archives

21. Which one of the following statements is not correct with regard to ad

Which one of the following statements is not correct with regard to adjournment in Lok Sabha?

The Speaker can call a sitting of the House before the date or hour to which it has been adjourned or at any time after the House has been adjourned sine die.

When the motion "that the House now adjourn" is being discussed, that is, from the hour the discussion on adjournment motion has commenced to the time the motion is disposed of, the Speaker cannot adjourn the House for the day.

The Speaker can extend the time of the House after taking sense of the House.

The Speaker cannot adjourn the House sine die without taking the approval of the President.

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Statement D is not correct. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha has the power to adjourn the House sine die (for an indefinite period). This action concludes the sitting and the session of the House, which is then formally terminated by the President through prorogation. The Speaker does not require the approval of the President to adjourn the House sine die.

Adjournment (including sine die) is a power exercised by the Presiding Officer (Speaker or Chairman) of the House to suspend or terminate a sitting. Prorogation, which terminates a session, is done by the President.

Statement A is correct; the Speaker can indeed call a sitting before the date to which it has been adjourned or after it has been adjourned sine die (Rule 15 of Lok Sabha Rules). Statement B is correct; during the discussion on an adjournment motion (Rule 60), the Speaker cannot adjourn the House for the day. Statement C is correct; the Speaker often extends the time of the sitting with the consent or ‘sense’ of the House to complete scheduled business.

22. Matters related to which one of the following subjects are not handled

Matters related to which one of the following subjects are not handled by the Ministry of External Affairs?

Notification regarding commencement or cessation of a state of war

World Health Organisation

Demarcation of the land frontiers of India

Indian Council of Cultural Relations

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While the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) is involved in international boundary agreements and negotiations related to the demarcation of land frontiers, the physical demarcation, survey, and management of land frontiers of India are primarily handled by the Ministry of Home Affairs (MoHA) and agencies under it, such as the Survey of India (under the Department of Science & Technology) and border guarding forces. Therefore, C is the subject where MEA’s role is less primary or is shared with other ministries, compared to the others.

The operational management and physical demarcation of land borders are primarily the responsibility of the Ministry of Home Affairs and associated departments/agencies. While MEA handles the diplomatic and treaty aspects of boundaries, the day-to-day matters and physical processes fall largely outside MEA’s direct purview.

Statement A (Notification regarding commencement or cessation of a state of war) is handled by MEA as it is a matter of international relations and foreign policy. Statement B (World Health Organisation) is handled by MEA as it involves India’s participation in an international organization. Statement D (Indian Council of Cultural Relations) is an autonomous organization under the administrative control of MEA, responsible for India’s cultural diplomacy.

23. Conservation, development, management and abatement of pollution of ri

Conservation, development, management and abatement of pollution of rivers, excluding the river Ganga and its tributaries, is the responsibility of

Ministry of Jal Shakti

Ministry of Earth Sciences

Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

Ministry of Science and Technology

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Conservation, development, management, and abatement of pollution of rivers, including the river Ganga and its tributaries, is the responsibility of the Ministry of Jal Shakti. This ministry was formed by merging the Ministry of Water Resources, River Development & Ganga Rejuvenation and the Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation.

The Ministry of Jal Shakti is the central nodal ministry for water resources, river development, and Ganga rejuvenation. While Ganga and its tributaries are a specific focus (via the Namami Gange program), the broader responsibility for conservation, management, and pollution abatement of all rivers falls under this ministry.

The Ministry of Earth Sciences deals with Earth sciences, oceanography, etc. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change is responsible for environmental protection laws, pollution standards, and enforcement through bodies like the Central Pollution Control Board, which play a crucial role in river pollution abatement but are not the primary nodal ministry for overall river development and management. The Ministry of Science and Technology supports research but is not responsible for the operational management of rivers.

24. Matters relating to Himalayan expeditions are handled by which one of

Matters relating to Himalayan expeditions are handled by which one of the following Ministries?

Ministry of Home Affairs

Ministry of Human Resource Development

Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports

Ministry of External Affairs

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Matters relating to Himalayan expeditions, which are typically adventure sports activities like mountaineering and trekking, are handled by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports. This Ministry promotes adventure sports and provides support for such expeditions.

Adventure sports, including mountaineering and expeditions to the Himalayas, fall under the domain of sports promotion and youth activities, which are managed by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.

The Ministry of Home Affairs deals with internal security, borders, and matters related to restricted areas, which might be involved in expeditions near borders, but it is not the nodal ministry for organizing or promoting expeditions themselves. The Ministry of Human Resource Development (now Education) deals with education. The Ministry of External Affairs deals with foreign relations; while foreign nationals or joint international expeditions would involve MEA, the primary responsibility for handling Indian expeditions is with the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.

25. All matters relating to survey to map, locate and assess living and no

All matters relating to survey to map, locate and assess living and non-living marine resources fall within the purview of which of the following?

National Institute of Oceanography

Ministry of Earth Sciences

Department of Animal Husbandry, Dairying and Fisheries

Coast Guard Organisation

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Matters relating to survey to map, locate and assess living and non-living marine resources fall primarily within the purview of the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES). MoES is responsible for ocean science and technology, including research vessels, ocean surveys, and mapping of marine resources.

The Ministry of Earth Sciences is the nodal ministry in India for all matters related to the Earth system, including oceans. Its mandate includes undertaking ocean surveys, mapping, and assessment of both living and non-living marine resources.

The National Institute of Oceanography (NIO) is a research laboratory under the Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR), which is under the Ministry of Science and Technology, not MoES. While NIO conducts relevant research, the overall governmental responsibility and coordination lie with MoES. The Department of Fisheries (under the Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying) deals with fisheries management and regulation of living resources, but not the broad survey and assessment mandate covering non-living resources and mapping. The Coast Guard is primarily concerned with maritime safety and security.

26. Which of the following statements is not correct?

Which of the following statements is not correct?

The Legislature of a State may, by law, establish a Contingency Fund in the nature of imprest.

The Contingency Fund of the State shall be placed at the disposal of the Chief Minister of the State.

The fund shall be paid from time to time such sums as may be determined by such law.

The Contingency Fund is meant to enable advances to be made for the purpose of meeting unforeseen expenditure pending authorization of such expenditure by the Legislature.

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Statement B is not correct. The Contingency Fund of the State, established under Article 267(2) of the Constitution and relevant state legislation, is placed at the disposal of the Governor of the State, not the Chief Minister. Advances are made from this fund by the Governor for meeting unforeseen expenditure, pending authorization by the State Legislature.

Control over the Contingency Fund of the State is vested in the Governor, who operates it on behalf of the Legislature to provide immediate funds for unforeseen events. The Chief Minister, as head of government, can recommend the use of the fund, but the constitutional authority holding the fund is the Governor.

Statement A is correct; Article 267(2) permits the Legislature of a State to establish a Contingency Fund. Statement C is correct; the sums to be paid into the fund are determined by law. Statement D is correct; the purpose of the Contingency Fund is precisely to enable advances for unforeseen expenditure when the Legislature is not in session or before it can authorize such expenditure.

27. Which of the following statements is not correct?

Which of the following statements is not correct?

All executive action of the Government of a State shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Chief Minister.

It is the duty of the Chief Minister to communicate to the Governor of the State all the decisions of Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the State.

The Governor makes rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of the State.

The validity of rules made by the Governor shall not be called in question.

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Statement A is not correct. All executive action of the Government of a State shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Governor (Article 166(1)). The Chief Minister is the head of the Council of Ministers and advises the Governor, but executive actions are formally taken in the Governor’s name.

Formal executive actions at the state level are carried out in the name of the Governor, similar to how executive actions at the Union level are carried out in the name of the President. The Chief Minister is the head of the government but not the formal head of the executive for issuing orders.

Statement B is correct; Article 167(a) makes it the duty of the Chief Minister to communicate to the Governor all decisions of the Council of Ministers. Statement C is correct; Article 166(3) empowers the Governor to make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of the State. Statement D is correct; Article 166(2) states that the validity of rules made by the Governor under Article 166 shall not be called in question on the ground that they are not rules made by the Governor.

28. Which of the following statements relating to the Governor is not corr

Which of the following statements relating to the Governor is not correct ?

The Governor has no diplomatic or military powers like the President.

The Governor possesses executive, legislative and judicial powers analogous to those of the President.

the Governor has equal power with that of the President to appoint judges of the State High Court.

The Governor has the power to nominate one member of Anglo-Indian community to the Legislative Assembly, if he is satisfied that they are not adequately represented.

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Statement C is not correct. Judges of the State High Courts are appointed by the President of India, not the Governor of the state. The President makes the appointment in consultation with the Chief Justice of India, the Governor of the state, and the Chief Justice of the concerned High Court (Article 217).

While the Governor is consulted in the process of appointing High Court judges, the power of appointment rests with the President, not the Governor. This highlights a key difference in the judicial powers between the President at the Union level and the Governor at the State level.

Statement A is correct; the Governor is a constitutional head of the state and does not possess diplomatic or military powers, which are vested in the President as head of the Union. Statement B is correct in that the Governor possesses analogous executive, legislative, and judicial powers within the state sphere, although their scope and impact differ from those of the President. Statement D was correct based on the constitutional provision (Article 333) before it was discontinued by the 104th Amendment Act, 2019. Assuming the question refers to the position before the amendment, this statement would be considered correct.

29. Which of the following statements relating to Fundamental Rights is no

Which of the following statements relating to Fundamental Rights is not correct ?

The Fundamental Rights are guaranteed by the Constitution not only against the actions of Executive but also against that of the Legislature.

The Supreme Court strikes at the arbitrary action of the State.

The Supreme Court has the jurisdiction to enforce fundamental rights against private bodies and individuals.

The Supreme Court cannot exercise its jurisdiction suo motu or on the basis of PIL.

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Statement D is not correct. The Supreme Court, as the guardian of fundamental rights, can indeed exercise its jurisdiction suo motu (on its own initiative) or on the basis of Public Interest Litigation (PIL) to enforce fundamental rights. This pro-active stance is a well-established part of Indian judicial practice, particularly in matters concerning fundamental rights.

The Supreme Court has wide powers under Article 32 to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights. This power extends to taking up matters suo motu or based on PILs filed by concerned citizens or groups, expanding access to justice for the protection of fundamental rights.

Statement A is correct because Fundamental Rights are limitations on the power of both the Executive and the Legislature (Article 13). Statement B is correct as the Supreme Court uses judicial review under Article 32 to strike down arbitrary actions of the state that violate fundamental rights. Statement C is correct as the Supreme Court has held that certain fundamental rights (like those against untouchability or bonded labour) can be enforced even against private individuals, and in some cases, private bodies performing public functions can fall within the definition of ‘State’ under Article 12.

30. Percentage of skilled workforce (with formal vocational training) to t

Percentage of skilled workforce (with formal vocational training) to the total workforce (20 to 24 years age group) in India is

less than 5%

more than 5% but less than 10%

more than 10% but less than 15%

more than 15% but less than 20%

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The percentage of skilled workforce (with formal vocational training) to the total workforce (20 to 24 years age group) in India, according to data available around the time this question would have been relevant, was less than 5%.

Multiple surveys and reports in the period leading up to and including the early 2010s consistently indicated that a very small fraction of India’s workforce had formal vocational training. While figures varied across different age groups and definitions, the percentage of the total workforce with formal vocational training was often cited as being in the low single digits. For the 20-24 age group, despite being younger, the penetration of formal vocational training was still remarkably low compared to global standards. Data sources like NSSO employment-unemployment surveys corroborated this.

Recognizing this gap, the Indian government launched significant initiatives like the National Skill Development Mission and Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana to increase the skilled workforce percentage. However, at the time reflected by the options (likely relating to data from prior years or Census 2011 context), the formal skilling level was indeed very low.