UPSC SO-Steno Archives

1. Assistance to institutions engaged in scientific work and to universit

Assistance to institutions engaged in scientific work and to universities for advancement of study and research in nuclear sciences is the responsibility of

Department of Atomic Energy

Ministry of New and Renewable Energy

Ministry of Power

Ministry of Science and Technology

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In India, all matters related to atomic energy, including scientific research, development, and assistance to institutions and universities in nuclear sciences, fall under the purview of the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE). The DAE is a department directly under the Prime Minister’s Office and is the nodal agency for nuclear research and development in the country.

The Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) is the primary body responsible for promoting and supporting research and development in nuclear sciences in India.

The DAE oversees various research institutions, public sector undertakings, and grant-in-aid institutions involved in nuclear science and technology, such as Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC), Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research (IGCAR), and provides grants to universities for relevant research.

2. Public Enterprises Selection Board, which advises the Government on ap

Public Enterprises Selection Board, which advises the Government on appointments to the top management posts in the Central Public Sector Enterprises, functions under the administrative control of

Ministry of Corporate Affairs

Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions

Prime Minister's Office

Competition Commission

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The Public Enterprises Selection Board (PESB) is a body constituted by the Government of India to advise the government on appointments to the top management posts (Chairman, Managing Director, Directors) in Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) and other minor public sector bodies. The PESB functions under the administrative control of the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT), which is part of the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.

The Public Enterprises Selection Board (PESB) is the nodal body for selection to top CPSE positions and reports administratively to the Ministry responsible for central government personnel matters.

The Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions is the central government agency responsible for personnel management, recruitment, training, and service conditions for central government employees, including those in senior positions in CPSEs through bodies like PESB.

3. Monitoring of the Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme

Monitoring of the Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS) is the responsibility of

the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha Secretariats

the Ministry of Finance

the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation

the Ministry of Home Affairs

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The Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS) is a scheme formulated and administered by the Government of India. The nodal Ministry responsible for the policy, guidelines, fund release, and monitoring of the implementation of the MPLADS is the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). This Ministry oversees the performance and expenditures under the scheme.

The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation is the designated central agency for the administration and monitoring of the MPLADS scheme.

Under the MPLADS scheme, each MP is allocated funds to recommend works of a developmental nature in their constituency. The District Authority is responsible for implementation at the local level, while MoSPI handles the central oversight and monitoring functions.

4. Bharat Wagon and Engineering Company Limited, Burn Standard Company Li

Bharat Wagon and Engineering Company Limited, Burn Standard Company Limited and the Lagan Jute Machinery Company Limited are subsidiary companies under the administrative control of which one of the following Ministries ?

Ministry of Railways

Ministry of Textiles

Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises

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Bharat Wagon and Engineering Company Limited (BWEL), Burn Standard Company Limited (BSCL), and Lagan Jute Machinery Company Limited (LJMCL) are/were Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs). Historically and at the time these companies were operational as government entities, they fell under the administrative control of the Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises (specifically the Department of Heavy Industry). Both BWEL and BSCL were railway wagon manufacturing companies initially under the Ministry of Railways but were later transferred to the Department of Heavy Industry. LJMCL was also under the Department of Heavy Industry, dealing with jute machinery.

Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) are typically under the administrative control of specific government Ministries based on their sector of operation.

The Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises is responsible for public sector enterprises in the heavy manufacturing and engineering sectors. Both BWEL and BSCL have since been liquidated. LJMCL continues to exist as a subsidiary of Braithwaite & Co. Ltd., also a CPSE under the Ministry of Heavy Industries.

5. Drafting of Bills is the responsibility of

Drafting of Bills is the responsibility of

the Ministry/Department concerned

the Ministry of Law and Justice

the Cabinet Secretariat

the Ministry of Home Affairs

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While the concerned Ministry/Department is responsible for formulating the policy content and objectives of a proposed law, the technical drafting of the Bill into precise legal language is primarily the responsibility of the Legislative Department within the Ministry of Law and Justice. This department provides the necessary legal expertise to ensure that the Bill is legally sound, consistent with the Constitution and existing laws, and accurately reflects the policy intent.

The Ministry of Law and Justice, specifically its Legislative Department, holds the core responsibility for the technical drafting of legislative Bills in India.

After the policy is decided by the concerned Ministry and approved by the Cabinet, the proposal is sent to the Ministry of Law and Justice for drafting. The draft Bill is then circulated, reviewed, and eventually introduced in Parliament.

6. Which one of the following statements is correct ?

Which one of the following statements is correct ?

Directive Principles of State Policy are not justiciable.

Legislations included in Ninth Schedule are not justiciable.

Laws enacted under Article 323-A are not justiciable.

Ordinances promulgated by the President of India are not justiciable.

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Statement A is correct. Article 37 of the Constitution, which is part of Part IV containing the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs), clearly states, “The provisions contained in this Part shall not be enforceable by any court”. This means DPSPs are non-justiciable, i.e., they cannot be enforced through legal action in courts.
Statement B is incorrect. While laws placed in the Ninth Schedule were initially considered immune from judicial review, the Supreme Court in the I.R. Coelho case (2007) ruled that laws placed in the Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973 (the date of the Kesavananda Bharati judgment) are subject to judicial review if they violate the basic structure of the Constitution.
Statement C is incorrect. Laws enacted under Article 323-A (Administrative Tribunals) establish tribunals whose decisions are subject to judicial review by High Courts (under Articles 226/227) and the Supreme Court (under Article 136), as established in the L. Chandra Kumar case (1997).
Statement D is incorrect. Ordinances promulgated by the President under Article 123 or Governors under Article 213 are laws and are subject to judicial review on grounds such as lack of legislative competence, violation of fundamental rights, or malafide intent (as established in cases like D.C. Wadhwa vs. State of Bihar).

Directive Principles of State Policy are explicitly made non-justiciable by Article 37 of the Constitution.

Justiciability refers to the ability to enforce rights or principles through court action. While DPSPs are non-justiciable, they are fundamental in the governance of the country and are expected to guide the State in making laws.

7. Which of the following statements with regard to preventive detention

Which of the following statements with regard to preventive detention is/are correct ?

1. The detenu has no rights other than those mentioned in clauses (4) and (5) of Article 22 of the Constitution of India.
2. The detenu can get bail on the ground that he had been in prison beyond twenty-four hours without an order of the magistrate.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

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Statement 1 is correct. Article 22 of the Constitution deals with protection against arrest and detention. Clauses (1) and (2) provide rights to persons arrested under ordinary law (right to be informed of grounds, right to consult a lawyer, and production before a magistrate within 24 hours). However, Article 22(3)(b) explicitly states that clauses (1) and (2) do not apply to persons arrested or detained under any law providing for preventive detention. The rights specifically granted to a person under preventive detention are contained in Article 22(4) and (5), which relate to the maximum period of detention without reference to an Advisory Board and the right to be informed of the grounds of detention and make a representation. Within the framework of Article 22 concerning detention rights, these are the only rights available to a detenu.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The requirement to produce an arrested person before a magistrate within 24 hours is under Article 22(2), which, as per Article 22(3)(b), does not apply to a person detained under preventive detention law. Therefore, failure to produce within 24 hours is not a valid ground for bail or release for a preventive detenu under this constitutional provision.

Article 22 distinguishes between rights related to ordinary arrest/detention and preventive detention; specific safeguards for preventive detention are outlined in clauses (4) and (5), excluding those in (1) and (2).

While Article 22(1) and (2) do not apply, a detenu still has other fundamental rights, but their enforcement can be limited by the preventive detention law itself, provided it is constitutional and follows procedures like Advisory Board review. The Supreme Court has also held that the detenu has a right to effectively represent against the detention order.

8. The Supreme Court of India has no power to grant special leave to appe

The Supreme Court of India has no power to grant special leave to appeal against

the decisions of the National Green Tribunal

the decisions of the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission

against the decisions of all those tribunals for which appeal is provided under the legislation

any judgment passed by any Court or tribunal constituted by or under any law relating to the armed forces

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Article 136 of the Constitution grants the Supreme Court broad power to grant special leave to appeal from any judgment, decree, determination, sentence, or order passed by any court or tribunal in India. However, Article 136(2) explicitly carves out an exception: “Nothing in clause (1) shall apply to any judgment, determination, sentence or order passed or made by any court or tribunal constituted by or under any law relating to the Armed Forces.” This means the Supreme Court cannot entertain a special leave petition against the decisions of military courts or tribunals.

The special leave petition power of the Supreme Court under Article 136 is exceptionally wide but specifically excludes decisions of courts and tribunals related to the armed forces.

The decisions of the National Green Tribunal (NGT) and the National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission (NCDRC) are subject to appeal or special leave petition to the Supreme Court. While legislation may provide for specific appeal routes for tribunal decisions, Article 136 provides an overriding power for the Supreme Court to grant special leave in exceptional circumstances, except for military tribunals.

9. The Constitution of India under Part XXI does not contain special prov

The Constitution of India under Part XXI does not contain special provision for which one of the following States ?

Maharashtra

Gujarat

Andhra Pradesh

Bihar

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Part XXI of the Constitution of India contains “Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions”. This part includes specific articles providing special provisions for certain states. Article 371 contains special provisions for Maharashtra and Gujarat. Articles 371A to 371J provide special provisions for Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh (and Telangana), Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Goa, and Karnataka, respectively. Bihar is not among the states for which special provisions are made under Part XXI of the Constitution.

Part XXI of the Constitution enumerates special provisions for a specific set of states, primarily to address unique historical, social, or economic circumstances.

Article 371 covers Maharashtra and Gujarat. Article 371D and 371E cover Andhra Pradesh (and Telangana). Other states with special provisions in this part include Nagaland (371A), Assam (371B), Manipur (371C), Sikkim (371F), Mizoram (371G), Arunachal Pradesh (371H), Goa (371I), and Karnataka (371J).

10. Which one of the following statements is correct ?

Which one of the following statements is correct ?

Any citizen of India above eighteen years of age can be appointed as the Prime Minister.

The Union Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Parliament.

While deciding any question regarding the age of a judge of a High Court, the President shall take advice of the Chief Justice of India.

While deciding any question regarding disqualification of a Member of Parliament, the President has power to decide the question after consulting the Supreme Court.

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Statement C is correct. According to Article 217(3) of the Constitution, any question regarding the age of a Judge of a High Court shall be decided by the President after consultation with the Chief Justice of India, and the decision of the President shall be final.

Statement A is incorrect; the minimum age to be appointed as Prime Minister is linked to the minimum age for being a Member of Parliament (25 for Lok Sabha, 30 for Rajya Sabha), not just being a citizen above eighteen. Statement B is incorrect; the Union Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha) only, as per Article 75(3), not the entire Parliament. Statement D is incorrect; while the President decides on the disqualification of an MP under Article 102(1), the President must obtain the opinion of the Election Commission and act according to that opinion, not consult the Supreme Court, as per Article 103(2).

The procedure for deciding the age of a High Court judge is crucial for matters related to their tenure and retirement. The final decision rests with the President, based on the advice of the Chief Justice of India.