UPSC SO-Steno Archives

1. According to the provisions of the Right to Information Act, 2005, whi

According to the provisions of the Right to Information Act, 2005, which one of the following statements is *not* correct ?

An application for information must be made only in English or in Hindi.

An application seeking information must accompany prescribed fee except for persons below poverty line.

No personal details need to be given while seeking information except those necessary for contacting the applicant.

Information can be sought even orally.

This question was previously asked in

UPSC SO-Steno – 2017

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The correct answer is A. The statement that an application must *only* be made in English or Hindi is incorrect.

Section 6(1) of the Right to Information Act, 2005, states that a person seeking information may make a request in writing or through electronic means in English or Hindi or in the official language of the area in which the application is being made. Therefore, limiting the languages to *only* English or Hindi is incorrect.
Statement B is correct as per Section 6(1) and Rule 3 of the RTI Rules, fees are prescribed, but persons below the poverty line are exempted.
Statement C is correct as per Section 6(2), the applicant is not required to give any reason for requesting the information or any personal details except those necessary for contacting him.
Statement D is correct in spirit as the proviso to Section 6(1) states that where a request is made orally, the public information officer shall render all reasonable assistance to the person making the request orally to reduce it in writing. While the formal application needs to be written, the process can start with an oral request facilitated by the PIO. Compared to the definitive inaccuracy of statement A, D is considered correct in the context of UPSC questions.

The RTI Act promotes transparency and accountability. The provision allowing applications in the official language of the area ensures accessibility for people across different states using regional languages.

2. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? Tax expenditure is

Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
Tax expenditure is the revenue foregone by the Government due to

1. exemptions under corporation tax.
2. deductions allowed on account of accelerated depreciations.
3. deductions on export profits earned by the SEZ units.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 only

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

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UPSC SO-Steno – 2017

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The correct answer is D. All three statements describe revenue foregone by the government due to specific tax provisions, which constitutes tax expenditure.

Tax expenditure refers to deviations from the normal tax structure that provide preferential treatment to certain activities or groups. These deviations result in a reduction of government revenue that would otherwise be collected.
1. Exemptions under corporation tax reduce the amount of corporate income subject to tax, thus lowering the tax collected. This is a form of tax expenditure.
2. Accelerated depreciation allows businesses to deduct the cost of assets faster than their actual wear and tear, reducing taxable income in the earlier years and deferring tax liability. This is considered a tax expenditure as it provides a benefit compared to normal depreciation rules.
3. Deductions or exemptions on export profits earned by Special Economic Zones (SEZ) units are specific tax incentives aimed at promoting exports and economic activity in SEZs. These provisions reduce the tax burden on these entities, representing foregone revenue.

Governments often publish a ‘Statement of Revenue Foregone’ or ‘Tax Expenditure Budget’ in their annual financial statements, detailing these types of tax concessions to show their impact on the budget.

3. Contract is an agreement between two parties which is not

Contract is an agreement between two parties which is not

voluntary

deliberate

binding

imposed

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UPSC SO-Steno – 2017

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The correct answer is D. A contract is based on voluntary agreement, not imposition.

A contract is a legally enforceable agreement between two or more parties. Essential elements of a valid contract include mutual assent (offer and acceptance), consideration, capacity, and legality. Mutual assent implies that the parties enter into the agreement voluntarily (A) and with intent (deliberately – B). Once formed correctly, the agreement is legally binding (C) on the parties. A contract cannot be legally imposed (D) on someone; it requires their free and willing consent.

Agreements entered into under duress, coercion, undue influence, or misrepresentation may be voidable because they lack the element of voluntary and deliberate consent.

4. Auction is a market where price is

Auction is a market where price is

set by negotiation between buyer and seller

arrived at by a bidding process

notified by Government

declared by auctioneer

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UPSC SO-Steno – 2017

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The correct answer is B. In an auction, the price is determined by a bidding process.

An auction is a type of sale in which goods or services are sold to the highest bidder. The price is not fixed beforehand but is arrived at dynamically through competitive bidding by potential buyers. Options A, C, and D do not accurately describe the primary mechanism of price discovery in an auction. Negotiation might follow in some cases, but the core price setting is via bids. Government notification or auctioneer declaration are not the fundamental price-setting mechanisms.

There are various types of auctions, such as English auctions (ascending price), Dutch auctions (descending price), sealed-bid auctions, etc., but all involve a process where participants make offers (bids) that determine the final price.

5. Competitive advantage of a firm does not imply

Competitive advantage of a firm does not imply

lower price for same value

same price for higher value

same price and same value

matching core competencies to the opportunities

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UPSC SO-Steno – 2017

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The correct answer is C. Competitive advantage implies offering something better than rivals, not the same price and same value.

Competitive advantage is achieved when a firm offers superior value to its customers compared to its rivals. This can be done in two primary ways:
A) Offering the same value (same quality/features) at a lower price (cost leadership).
B) Offering higher value (better quality/features) at the same price (differentiation).
C) Offering the same price and same value relative to competitors implies parity, not competitive advantage.
D) Matching core competencies to opportunities is a strategic process or strategy formulation that *leads* to competitive advantage, but it is not the definition of the advantage itself. The advantage is the *result* of this matching process.
The question asks what competitive advantage *does not imply*.

Michael Porter’s framework on competitive strategy identifies two basic types of competitive advantage: cost leadership and differentiation. Both involve providing superior value compared to competitors, either through lower cost or unique benefits.

6. Which one is not a necessary condition for competitiveness of a firm ?

Which one is not a necessary condition for competitiveness of a firm ?

Comparable quality of the product with that of rivals

Competitive price with rivals

Adequate returns to the firm

Economical use of resources by the firm

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UPSC SO-Steno – 2017

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The correct answer is C. Adequate returns are a result, not a necessary condition, of competitiveness.

Competitiveness of a firm means its ability to perform successfully in the market against rivals. Necessary conditions for this often include offering comparable or superior quality (A), competitive pricing (B), and efficient use of resources (D) to control costs and improve quality. Adequate returns (profitability) are typically an outcome or consequence of being competitive, rather than a prerequisite for competing. A firm might be highly competitive (e.g., gaining market share) even while making low or negative returns initially due to strategic pricing or heavy investment.

Competitiveness is about a firm’s ability to deliver value to customers more effectively or efficiently than rivals. This value can be delivered through lower costs (cost leadership) or superior product/service differentiation. Resources (like capital, labour, technology) must be used economically to achieve either of these. Quality and price are key aspects of the product/service offering relative to competitors.

8. Which of the following statements about Attorney General of India is c

Which of the following statements about Attorney General of India is correct ?

He has the right to take part in the proceedings and vote in either House of Parliament.

He has the right to take part in the proceedings but has no right to vote in either House of Parliament.

He cannot attend a joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

He cannot take part in the Committee meetings of Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha.

This question was previously asked in

UPSC SO-Steno – 2017

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The correct answer is B. The Attorney General has the right to take part in proceedings but not to vote.

According to Article 88 of the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India has the right to speak in, and otherwise to take part in the proceedings of, either House, any joint sitting of the Houses, and any committee of Parliament of which he may be named a member. However, he does not have the right to vote in Parliament.

The Attorney General is the highest law officer of the country, appointed by the President (Article 76). He is the legal advisor to the Government of India. He holds office during the pleasure of the President.

9. Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to Lok Sa

Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to Lok Sabha ?

1. The procedure for summoning of Lok Sabha for an emergency session is generally not same as for a regular session.
2. The assurances given by Ministers on the floor of the House, which are pending for implementation are deemed not to lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
3. Business pending before parliamentary committees of the Lok Sabha do not lapse on dissolution of Lok Sabha.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 and 3 only

2 and 3 only

2 only

1, 2 and 3

This question was previously asked in

UPSC SO-Steno – 2017

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The correct answer is C, meaning only statement 2 is correct.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The procedure for summoning Lok Sabha for any session, regular or emergency, is generally the same, initiated by the President on the recommendation of the government. The urgency might affect the notice period, but the fundamental procedure remains similar.
Statement 2 is correct. Assurances given by Ministers on the floor of the House are examined by the Committee on Government Assurances. The business of this committee and the assurances given by Ministers do *not* lapse upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. They are carried over to the new Lok Sabha.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Business pending before parliamentary committees of the Lok Sabha *lapses* upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. This includes Bills pending before Select/Joint Committees constituted by Lok Sabha, and other matters before various standing or ad-hoc committees appointed by the Lok Sabha. Exceptions exist mainly for committees appointed by Rajya Sabha or specific joint committees where Rajya Sabha members continue.

Dissolution of the Lok Sabha results in the lapse of most business pending before it or its committees. This includes Bills originating and pending only in Lok Sabha, Bills originating in Rajya Sabha but pending in Lok Sabha, Bills passed by Lok Sabha but pending in Rajya Sabha, and all notices, motions, and resolutions pending in Lok Sabha. However, some matters, like Bills pending in Rajya Sabha but not passed by Lok Sabha, do not lapse. Similarly, parliamentary assurances carry over.

10. Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to the ef

Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to the effect of dissolution of Lok Sabha ?
1. Supplementary Demands for grants do not lapse.
2. A motion given in pursuance of Section 3(1) of Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 for presenting an address to the President praying for removal of a Judge, if admitted, will not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
3. Anything said or done during the existence of a House, can be raised as a privilege issue after that House has been dissolved.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1,2and 3

1 and 2 only

2 only

1 and 3 only

This question was previously asked in

UPSC SO-Steno – 2017

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Statement 1 is incorrect. Supplementary Demands for Grants are items of financial business pending before the Lok Sabha. As with most pending business, they lapse upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. The new Lok Sabha will need to deal with financial matters, possibly through a vote on account or fresh demands.
Statement 2 is correct. Matters relating to impeachment or removal of constitutional functionaries (like Judges) are typically considered proceedings of a quasi-judicial nature and are treated as not lapsing upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. A motion for presenting an address for the removal of a Judge under the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, once admitted, falls into this category.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Privilege issues relate to contempt or obstruction of the House or its members in their capacity as members. Once the House is dissolved, it ceases to exist, and its privileges cannot be violated or asserted in the same manner. While contempt of the *previous* House might be investigated by the *new* House, actions or statements purely related to the proceedings *within* the dissolved House or impacting members *of that dissolved House* during its tenure generally cannot be raised as a fresh privilege issue after dissolution. Parliamentary privilege is primarily the privilege of the House in existence.

While most pending business lapses upon dissolution of Lok Sabha, certain matters of a constitutional or quasi-judicial nature, like proceedings for the removal of a Judge, are exceptions and do not lapse. Privilege issues are generally related to the House in existence.

The principle is that dissolution wipes the slate clean for the Lok Sabha regarding its legislative and most deliberative functions. However, processes initiated under specific constitutional provisions or statutes that have a character beyond ordinary legislative business may survive dissolution.