UPSC SO-Steno Archives

11. Which one of the following Constitutional amendments amended a large n

Which one of the following Constitutional amendments amended a large number of provisions in the Constitution of India so as to give effect to the scheme of the States reorganisation and also to certain other changes relating to the High Courts and High Court Judges, the executive powers of the Union and the States and the legislative lists ?

Third amendment

Sixth amendment

Seventh amendment

Twelfth amendment

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The Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956, was enacted to implement the recommendations of the States Reorganisation Commission and the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. It significantly amended many parts of the Constitution, including abolishing the classification of states into Parts A, B, C, and D, introducing Union Territories, making provisions for common High Courts for multiple states, adjusting executive powers, and modifying entries in the legislative lists.

The Seventh Amendment of 1956 is directly linked to the major reorganisation of Indian states along linguistic lines and introduced fundamental structural changes to the federal setup and related constitutional provisions.

The Third Amendment (1954) related to Schedule VII (Concurrent List). The Sixth Amendment (1956) related to Schedule VII (Union List entry on newspapers). The Twelfth Amendment (1962) incorporated Goa, Daman and Diu as Union Territories. The Seventh Amendment was the most comprehensive amendment dealing with state reorganisation.

12. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?

Which one of the following statements is *not* correct ?

The freedom of speech and expression includes freedom of press.

The freedoms under Article 19 of the Constitution of India can be claimed *only* by citizens.

The right to equality under Article 14 can be claimed only by a citizen.

The right to life and personal liberty can be claimed by any person.

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Option C is not correct. The right to equality under Article 14 (“The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India”) is available to *any person*, which includes both citizens and non-citizens.

Not all fundamental rights are available to all persons. Some rights are available only to citizens, while others are available to any person (citizens and foreigners).

Option A is correct; the Supreme Court has held that the freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a) includes the freedom of the press. Option B is correct; the six freedoms listed in Article 19(1) (speech & expression, assembly, association, movement, residence, profession) are guaranteed only to citizens. Option D is correct; the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 is available to any person within the territory of India, regardless of citizenship.

13. Clause (1) of Article 31A of the Constitution of India has been replac

Clause (1) of Article 31A of the Constitution of India has been replaced by a new clause and the amendment has been given retrospective effect. As a result of the amendment, in addition to laws relating to the abolition of zamindari, some more categories of welfare legislation have been taken out from the purview of which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India ?

Articles 13 and 17

Articles 14 and 19

Articles 18, 21 and 23

Articles 16, 20 and 32

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Article 31A provides for the saving of laws providing for acquisition of estates, etc. It specifically states that no law falling under its specified categories shall be deemed to be void on the ground that it is inconsistent with, or takes away or abridges any of the rights conferred by *Article 14 or Article 19*. Therefore, laws protected under Article 31A are shielded from challenge based on alleged violations of Articles 14 and 19.

Article 31A was introduced to protect agrarian reform laws (like zamindari abolition) from being challenged on the grounds of violating fundamental rights, particularly the right to equality (Article 14) and the freedoms under Article 19 (especially property-related aspects before its removal from Part III).

Article 31A was inserted by the 1st Amendment Act, 1951, primarily to protect laws abolishing zamindari. Subsequent amendments expanded the categories of laws covered by Article 31A to include other agrarian reforms, taking over management of properties, amalgamation of corporations, extinction or modification of rights of directors/shareholders, and mining leases, all of which are protected from challenge under Articles 14 and 19.

14. Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding the p

Which one of the following statements is *not* correct regarding the power and procedure for Constitutional amendment in India ?

Parliament must preserve the basic framework of the Constitution.

Schedule I of the Constitution of India can be amended by an ordinary legislation.

A Constitution amendment Bill must be passed by majority prescribed under Article 368 of the Constitution of India.

The process of Constitutional amendment can be initiated by a State legislature.

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Option D is not correct. As per Article 368 of the Constitution, an amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a Bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha), not by a State legislature.

The procedure for constitutional amendment under Article 368 reserves the power of initiation solely with the Union Parliament.

Option A is correct based on the Supreme Court’s ruling in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973). Option B is correct; certain changes to Schedule I (related to the names, boundaries, and territories of states and union territories) can be made by ordinary legislation under Articles 2, 3, and 4, which are explicitly exempted from the procedure of Article 368. Option C is correct; most constitutional amendments require a special majority as prescribed in Article 368, and some also require ratification by states.

15. In the Lok Sabha, the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business make

In the Lok Sabha, the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business make certain specific provisions with regard to bills for amendment of the Constitution. They relate to

voting procedure in the house at various stages of such bills, in the light of the requirements of Article 368.

the procedure before introduction in case of such bills, if assent is given by the President of India.

the voting procedure in the house at various stages of such bills, in the light of the requirements of Article 372.

the procedure before introduction in the case of such bills, if assent is given by concerned State Governor.

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Option A is correct. The Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha contain specific provisions related to the various stages of consideration and passing of Bills seeking to amend the Constitution, particularly concerning the special voting requirements mandated by Article 368 (e.g., majority of the total membership of the House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting).

Constitutional Amendment Bills require a special majority as per Article 368. The Lok Sabha Rules of Procedure lay down the specific steps and voting processes within the House to ensure compliance with these constitutional requirements.

Option B is incorrect; President’s assent comes after a bill is passed by Parliament, not before introduction. Option C is incorrect; Article 372 deals with the continuance of existing laws, not constitutional amendment procedures. Option D is irrelevant; State Governors have no role in the process of amending the Constitution by the Union Parliament.

16. The India Meteorological Department (IMD) has announced to set up the

The India Meteorological Department (IMD) has announced to set up the first ‘Thunderstorm Research Testbed’ of the country in

Odisha

Andhra Pradesh

Tamil Nadu

West Bengal

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The India Meteorological Department (IMD) announced the setting up of the first ‘Thunderstorm Research Testbed’ of the country in Balasore, Odisha.

This initiative aims to study thunderstorms and lightning in detail to improve forecasting and early warning systems, particularly relevant for eastern India which is prone to such events.

The testbed is being established in collaboration with the Ministry of Earth Sciences, IMD, Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), and Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). Balasore was chosen due to its high frequency of thunderstorm occurrences.

18. Which one of the following is not correct with regard to the Railway C

Which one of the following is not correct with regard to the Railway Convention Committee ?

It is a Committee constituted by the Minister of Railways.

it is an ad hoc Committee of Parliament to review the rate of dividend which is payable by the Railways to the general revenues.

It suggests the level of appropriation to various Railway funds.

Minister of Finance is a nominated member of the Railway Convention Committee.

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Option A is incorrect. The Railway Convention Committee is a Committee of Parliament, constituted by the Speaker of Lok Sabha in consultation with the Chairman of Rajya Sabha, not by the Minister of Railways.

The Railway Convention Committee is a standing/ad hoc committee of the Indian Parliament formed periodically. Its primary function is to review the rate of dividend payable by the Railways to the General Revenues and other related financial matters.

The Committee examines the working of the Railway Finances and makes recommendations on various aspects, including the level of appropriation to Railway Depreciation Reserve Fund and Railway Development Fund. It consists of members from both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Option B correctly describes its nature as an ad hoc committee to review the dividend rate. Option C correctly states that it suggests appropriations to funds. Option D is also incorrect as the Minister of Finance is not a nominated member; it’s composed solely of Members of Parliament.

19. Core CPI inflation is generally lower than headline CPI inflation

Core CPI inflation is generally lower than headline CPI inflation because

food inflation is generally higher than non-food inflation

food prices fluctuate too widely over the year

food prices are controlled by the Government

share of food in consumption basket has been increasing over time

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Option A is the most accurate explanation among the choices for why core CPI is *generally* lower than headline CPI. Headline CPI includes food and energy, while core CPI excludes them. When food inflation is high (which it often is in economies like India due to supply shocks, weather dependency, etc.), it pushes headline inflation up relative to core inflation.

Core inflation measures inflation excluding volatile items like food and energy. Headline inflation includes all items. If the excluded items (food and energy) experience higher price increases than the included items, then headline inflation will be higher than core inflation.

Option B is true, food prices do fluctuate widely, but the *reason* core is generally lower than headline is specifically when these fluctuations lead to high food inflation. Option C is generally incorrect; food prices are largely market-driven, though the government might intervene through procurement or subsidies for certain items. Option D, the share of food in the consumption basket, affects the *weight* of food in CPI calculation, not directly why core is lower than headline, although a large food share means food inflation has a significant impact on headline CPI.

20. Consider the following statements: 1. The Financial Bills of catego

Consider the following statements:

1. The Financial Bills of category B if enacted and brought into operation, would involve expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India.
2. Financial Bills of category A can be introduced only in Lok Sabha.
3. Financial Bill of category B require recommendation of the President for its introduction.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

1 only

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

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Statements 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect.
Statement 1: Financial Bills of category B are defined under Article 117(3). These are Bills which, if enacted, would involve expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India but are not Money Bills or Financial Bills under Article 117(1).
Statement 2: Financial Bills of category A are defined under Article 117(1). These Bills contain provisions similar to a Money Bill as well as other matters. Like Money Bills, they can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha and require the recommendation of the President for introduction.
Statement 3: Financial Bills of category B (Article 117(3)) do not require the recommendation of the President for their introduction. They only require the recommendation of the President for their consideration by either House.

Financial Bills under Article 117 are of two types. Category A requires Presidential recommendation for introduction and can only be introduced in Lok Sabha. Category B requires Presidential recommendation only for consideration but can be introduced in either House and involves expenditure from the Consolidated Fund upon enactment.

Money Bills (Article 110) also require the President’s recommendation for introduction and can only be introduced in Lok Sabha. Financial Bills of category A are similar to Money Bills in introduction requirements but differ in the powers of the Rajya Sabha. Financial Bills of category B have fewer restrictions on introduction but involve expenditure from the Consolidated Fund.