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31. Which one of the following is not a function of the Constitution of

Which one of the following is not a function of the Constitution of India?

To ensure participation of good people in politics

To guarantee a set of rights to citizens

To define the power of the different organs of government

To create conditions for a just society

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The correct option is A, To ensure participation of good people in politics.

The Constitution of India performs several functions essential for a democratic state. It lays down the basic structure of the government, defines the powers and functions of its organs (legislature, executive, judiciary), guarantees fundamental rights to citizens, sets goals for the welfare state (DPSPs), and provides the framework for governance to achieve a just society. However, while the Constitution provides the mechanism for political participation (e.g., electoral process), it cannot *ensure* that only people with certain moral qualities (“good people”) enter politics. This is influenced by societal factors, political processes, and individual choices, not directly guaranteed by the constitutional framework itself.

B) The Constitution guarantees fundamental rights to citizens (Part III).
C) The Constitution defines the structure, powers, and responsibilities of the different organs of government (Parts V, VI, etc.).
D) The Constitution aims to create conditions for a just society through its Preamble (justice, equality, fraternity) and Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV).
Ensuring the moral character of political participants is not a function directly undertaken or guaranteed by the text of the Constitution.

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32. Which one of the following is not a part of Fundamental Rights?

Which one of the following is not a part of Fundamental Rights?

Right to education

Right to establish educational institutions by minorities

Right to be conferred with titles

Right against untouchability

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The correct option is C, Right to be conferred with titles.

Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Indian Constitution.
A) Right to education (Article 21A) is a Fundamental Right.
B) Right to establish educational institutions by minorities (Article 30) is a Fundamental Right.
D) Right against untouchability (Article 17) is a Fundamental Right.
C) Article 18 of the Constitution abolishes titles, except military and academic distinctions. It prohibits the State from conferring titles on citizens and prohibits citizens from accepting titles from foreign states. It does not grant a “Right to be conferred with titles”. In fact, it restricts the use of titles.

Article 18 is part of the Right to Equality (Articles 14-18). Its purpose is to prevent the creation of a privileged class and promote social equality. The National Awards like Bharat Ratna, Padma Vibhushan, etc., are not considered ‘titles’ within the meaning of Article 18 as per the Supreme Court’s interpretation in the Balaji Raghavan v. Union of India case (1996).

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33. Which one of the following is not a writ?

Which one of the following is not a writ?

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Mandamus

Habeas Corpus

Certiorari

Severability

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The correct option is D, Severability.

Writs are legal orders issued by superior courts (Supreme Court and High Courts in India) to command a person or entity to do or refrain from doing something. The Indian Constitution empowers the Supreme Court (Article 32) and High Courts (Article 226) to issue specific writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights and for other purposes. The five main types of writs are Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, and Quo Warranto.

Mandamus (A), Habeas Corpus (B), and Certiorari (C) are all established writs. Mandamus means ‘we command’ and orders a public official to perform a duty. Habeas Corpus means ‘to have the body of’ and directs a person who has detained another to produce the body before the court. Certiorari means ‘to be certified’ or ‘to be informed’ and is issued by a higher court to quash an order of a lower court or tribunal. Severability (D), on the other hand, is a legal doctrine, specifically the Doctrine of Severability (or Separability), which states that if a part of a statute is held unconstitutional, the rest of the statute can remain valid and operative if the void part is severable from the rest. It is not a writ.

34. Which one of the following is a non-justiciable right?

Which one of the following is a non-justiciable right?

Right to adequate livelihood

Right against exploitation

Right of accused

Right to life and personal liberty

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The correct option is A, Right to adequate livelihood.

Rights in the Indian Constitution can be broadly classified into justiciable and non-justiciable rights. Justiciable rights, such as Fundamental Rights (Part III), are enforceable by the courts. Non-justiciable rights, such as the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs, Part IV), are guidelines for the state and are not directly enforceable by courts. The Right to adequate livelihood is mentioned in Article 39(a) as a principle of policy to be followed by the State, falling under the Directive Principles of State Policy, which are non-justiciable.

Options B, C, and D are all Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Part III of the Constitution and are therefore justiciable. The Right against exploitation includes prohibition of forced labour and child labour (Articles 23-24). Rights of the accused are covered under various articles like Article 20 (protection in respect of conviction for offences), Article 21 (protection of life and personal liberty), and Article 22 (protection against arrest and detention). The Right to life and personal liberty is guaranteed under Article 21.

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35. Which one of the following best describes the electoral system of Indi

Which one of the following best describes the electoral system of India ?

First-Past-the-Post System

Proportional Representation

Mixed System

General Ticket

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The correct option is A, First-Past-the-Post System.

The First-Past-the-Post (FPTP) system, also known as the simple majority system, is the electoral system predominantly used in India for direct elections to the Lok Sabha (House of the People) and the State Legislative Assemblies. Under this system, the candidate who secures the highest number of votes in a constituency is declared elected, regardless of whether they have secured an absolute majority of the votes.

While India also uses the Proportional Representation system for indirect elections, such as the election of the President, Vice-President, and members of the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) and State Legislative Councils, the FPTP system is the most characteristic and widely applied system for electing representatives in the country’s general elections. Therefore, it best describes the electoral system of India in a general context. A mixed system combines elements of both FPTP and Proportional Representation, which is not the primary system in India for direct elections. General Ticket is a method of electing multiple representatives from a district on a single ballot, which is not applicable to India’s constituency-based FPTP system.

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36. The Constitution (35 th Amendment) Act of 1974 is related to which on

The Constitution (35^th Amendment) Act of 1974 is related to which one of the following States ?

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Mizoram

Sikkim

Nagaland

Arunachal Pradesh

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The Constitution (35th Amendment) Act of 1974 is related to Sikkim.

The 35th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1974, amended the Constitution of India to include Sikkim as an ‘associate state’. This granted Sikkim representation in the Indian Parliament without fully integrating it into the Union as a state. A new Article 2A and a Tenth Schedule were added to the Constitution for this purpose.

This amendment was a step towards the full integration of Sikkim into India. In 1975, following a referendum, the Monarchy (Chogyal) was abolished, and Sikkim became the 22nd state of India through the 36th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1975. The 35th and 36th Amendments are key historical milestones regarding Sikkim’s accession to India.

37. Which one of the following factors does not affect the distribution of

Which one of the following factors does not affect the distribution of groundwater ?

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Amount of precipitation

Rate of evaporation

Ability of the ground surface to allow water to infiltrate into the groundwater system

Distance from the sea

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Distance from the sea is the factor among the given options that does not universally affect the distribution of groundwater.

Groundwater distribution is primarily controlled by factors related to the supply of water and the ability of the ground to store and transmit it. These include the amount of precipitation (recharge), the rate of evaporation (loss and reduced recharge), and the geological characteristics (porosity, permeability, infiltration capacity). Distance from the sea is relevant mainly for coastal hydrogeology (e.g., saltwater intrusion) but is not a fundamental factor governing groundwater distribution in all landscapes, particularly inland areas.

Precipitation is the main source of groundwater recharge. High evaporation rates reduce surface water and soil moisture, limiting infiltration. The ability of the ground surface (and underlying strata) to allow infiltration and hold water determines where groundwater can accumulate and how it is distributed in aquifers. While distance from the sea influences specific conditions like salinity gradients and tidal effects in coastal aquifers, it doesn’t determine the general presence or absence and distribution of groundwater in non-coastal regions, which are governed by climatic and geological factors.

38. Fine-grained bed of ephemeral lake in a desert is also known as

Fine-grained bed of ephemeral lake in a desert is also known as

Playa

Oasis

Drumlin

Natural levee

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A fine-grained bed of an ephemeral lake in a desert is also known as a Playa.

A playa (also known as a dry lakebed or alkali flat) is a basin or depression that holds water only temporarily, usually after rain, forming an ephemeral lake. As the water evaporates in the arid conditions, fine-grained sediments (silt and clay) are left behind, forming a smooth, flat, dry surface.

Oasis is a fertile area in a desert with a water source. Drumlin is a glacial landform. Natural levee is a feature of river systems. The description of a temporary lakebed with fine-grained deposits in a desert specifically refers to a playa.

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39. Which one of the following is a crater lake in India ?

Which one of the following is a crater lake in India ?

Lonar Lake

Sambhar Lake

Chilika Lake

Vembanad Lake

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Lonar Lake is a crater lake in India.

Lonar Lake in Maharashtra is an impact crater lake, formed by a meteorite impact event. It is one of the four known hypervelocity impact craters on Earth in basaltic rock.

Sambhar Lake is a large inland salt lake formed in a depression. Chilika Lake is a large brackish water lagoon on the east coast. Vembanad Lake is a large lagoon system in Kerala. None of these three are crater lakes. Lonar Lake is the only one among the options that fits the description of a crater lake.

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40. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List I
(Place)
A. Mumbai
B. Visakhapatnam
C. Chennai
D. Kochi

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List II
(Feature)
1. Queen of the Arabian Sea
2. Biggest port of India
3. Land-locked harbour
4. Oldest port on the Eastern Coast

Code :

	A	B	C	D
(a)	2	4	3	1
(b)	2	3	4	1
(c)	1	3	4	2
(d)	1	4	3	2

2, 4, 3, 1

2, 3, 4, 1

1, 3, 4, 2

1, 4, 3, 2

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The correct matching is A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1.

Matching the ports with their features:
A. Mumbai: India’s largest port (including JNPT nearby) in terms of cargo handling, hence associated with Feature 2 (Biggest port of India).
B. Visakhapatnam: Known for its natural, land-locked harbour, associated with Feature 3.
C. Chennai: One of the oldest ports on the Eastern Coast, particularly known as an old artificial harbour, associated with Feature 4.
D. Kochi (Cochin): Historically famous as a trading port on the Arabian Sea and often referred to as the “Queen of the Arabian Sea,” associated with Feature 1.

Based on the matches A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1, the correct code is (b). Mumbai Port and the adjacent Jawaharlal Nehru Port (JNPT) together handle a major share of India’s maritime trade, making it the largest port complex. Visakhapatnam’s harbour is protected by a natural rock formation called Dolphin’s Nose, making it land-locked. Chennai Port is an important artificial harbour on the east coast, established in 1881, making it one of the oldest. Kochi’s moniker “Queen of the Arabian Sea” reflects its historical significance as a major trading port on the southwest coast of India.