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21. Which of the following statements about the Indian Councils Act of 186

Which of the following statements about the Indian Councils Act of 1861 is/are correct ?

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1. It enlarged the Governor General’s Council for the purpose of making laws.
2. The Governor General was not authorised to increase the number of members.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

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The Indian Councils Act of 1861 was a significant step in the history of legislative development in India.
Statement 1: It enlarged the Governor General’s Council for legislative purposes by adding 6 to 12 additional members, of whom at least half were to be non-officials. This included the possibility of nominating Indians, thus associating them with the legislative process. This statement is correct.
Statement 2: The Act *authorized* the Governor General to nominate the additional members (6 to 12). Therefore, the statement that the Governor General was *not* authorised to increase the number of members (within the stipulated range) is incorrect.
Based on the analysis, only Statement 1 is correct.

– The Act of 1861 introduced a portfolio system in the executive council.
– It initiated the association of Indians in the legislative process through nomination of non-official members.
– It restored legislative powers to the Presidencies of Madras and Bombay.
– It empowered the Governor General to issue ordinances.

The additional members were nominated for a term of two years. The Governor General could also override the Council in certain circumstances.

22. Who among the following described the Directive Principles of State Po

Who among the following described the Directive Principles of State Policy as the novel feature of the Constitution of India ?

Jawaharlal Nehru

Rajendra Prasad

S.N. Mukherjee

B.R. Ambedkar

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Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution, described the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) as a ‘novel feature’ of the Indian Constitution in the Constituent Assembly.

– Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV of the Constitution) are guidelines for the state to be kept in mind while framing laws and policies.
– They are non-justiciable, meaning they cannot be enforced by courts.
– Ambedkar saw them as a unique and significant aspect of the Indian Constitution, aiming at the establishment of a welfare state.

The DPSPs were inspired by the Constitution of Ireland. While non-justiciable, they are considered fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws (Article 37).

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23. Which one of the following statements about the Attorney General of In

Which one of the following statements about the Attorney General of India is not correct ?

He has the right of audience only in the Supreme Court of India.

He shall receive such remuneration as the President may determine.

He shall be qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court.

He shall give advice to the Government of India on all legal matters.

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Article 76 of the Constitution of India deals with the Attorney General for India.
Option A states “He has the right of audience only in the Supreme Court of India”. Article 76(3) explicitly states that the Attorney General shall have the right of audience in *all* courts in the territory of India. Thus, this statement is incorrect.
Option B states “He shall receive such remuneration as the President may determine”. Article 76(4) states this, which is correct.
Option C states “He shall be qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court”. Article 76(1) states this requirement, which is correct.
Option D states “He shall give advice to the Government of India on all legal matters”. Article 76(2) outlines his duty to give advice to the Government of India upon such legal matters as may be referred to him by the President, which is correct.
The question asks for the incorrect statement.

– The Attorney General is the highest law officer in India.
– He has the right of audience in all courts within India’s territory.
– He must be qualified to be a Supreme Court Judge.
– He advises the Government of India on legal matters.
– His remuneration is determined by the President.

The Attorney General is appointed by the President and holds office during the pleasure of the President. His duties also include performing other legal duties of a character assigned to him by the President and discharging the functions conferred on him by or under the Constitution or any other law.

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24. Which one of the following is not a feature of the Constitution of Ind

Which one of the following is not a feature of the Constitution of India ?

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It provides a set of basic rules.

It specifies the power of the Government.

It is the supreme law of the land.

It specifies the supremacy of the judiciary.

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The Constitution of India is the supreme law of the land (Option C). It provides a framework of basic rules for governance (Option A) and specifies the powers and structure of the Government’s organs (legislature, executive, judiciary) (Option B). While the judiciary plays a crucial role in interpreting the Constitution and upholding its supremacy through judicial review, the Constitution itself establishes the judiciary and defines its powers within the framework of constitutional supremacy. The Constitution specifies the role and powers of the judiciary, but it does not specify the “supremacy of the judiciary” over the Constitution or other branches in an unqualified sense. Therefore, “It specifies the supremacy of the judiciary” is not a correct fundamental feature of the Constitution in the same way as the others.

– The Constitution of India is the supreme law.
– It lays down the basic structure and rules of the political system.
– It defines the powers and functions of the different branches of government.
– Judicial review is a feature, but it operates within the framework of constitutional supremacy.

Constitutional supremacy is a key feature of the Indian political system, not the supremacy of any one organ. The judiciary is independent and powerful, serving as the guardian and interpreter of the Constitution, but its power is derived from and limited by the Constitution itself.

25. Which one of the following countries has the maximum time difference f

Which one of the following countries has the maximum time difference from Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) ?

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India

Nepal

Sri Lanka

Bhutan

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The standard time differences from Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) for the given countries are:
– India: UTC+5:30
– Nepal: UTC+5:45
– Sri Lanka: UTC+5:30
– Bhutan: UTC+6:00
Bhutan (UTC+6:00) has the maximum time difference of 6 hours from GMT (UTC+0:00) among the given options.

– Standard Time is defined relative to Coordinated Universal Time (UTC), which is practically the same as GMT.
– Each country has a specific offset from UTC.

India’s standard time (IST) is 5 hours and 30 minutes ahead of GMT. Nepal’s standard time (NPT) is 5 hours and 45 minutes ahead of GMT. Sri Lanka’s standard time (SLST) is 5 hours and 30 minutes ahead of GMT. Bhutan’s standard time (BTT) is 6 hours ahead of GMT.

26. Which one of the following best describes the Lithosphere ?

Which one of the following best describes the Lithosphere ?

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Upper and lower mantle

Crust and core

Crust and upper mantle

Lower mantle and core

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The correct option is C, Crust and upper mantle.

The Earth’s structure is typically described in terms of layers: the crust, the mantle, and the core. These layers can be further divided based on physical properties (like rigidity) or chemical composition. The Lithosphere is defined as the rigid outer layer of the Earth. It consists of the entire crust (continental and oceanic) and the uppermost, rigid part of the mantle, often called the lithospheric mantle.

Beneath the lithosphere lies the Asthenosphere, which is a mechanically weak, ductile layer of the upper mantle. The lithosphere essentially rides on the asthenosphere. Option A is incorrect as it omits the crust. Option B is incorrect as it includes the core but omits a large part of the mantle. Option D describes deeper layers below the lithosphere.

27. Which one of the following is not a soil forming factor ?

Which one of the following is not a soil forming factor ?

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Parent material

Topography

Climate

Human habitation

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The correct option is D, Human habitation.

Soil formation (pedogenesis) is a complex process influenced by several key factors. The primary soil-forming factors are generally recognized as:
1. **Parent material (A):** The geological material from which soil is formed (rock, sediment).
2. **Climate (C):** Temperature and precipitation influence weathering rates, organic decomposition, and leaching.
3. **Topography (B) (or Relief):** Slope, aspect, and elevation affect drainage, erosion, and microclimate.
4. **Organisms:** Biota, including plants, animals, fungi, bacteria, and *humans*, contribute organic matter, mix soil, and influence nutrient cycling.
5. **Time:** The duration over which soil formation processes occur.
While human activities related to habitation (agriculture, urbanization, waste disposal) significantly *impact* existing soils and can influence soil development over time (as part of the ‘Organisms’ factor), ‘human habitation’ itself is not typically listed as a fundamental, primary soil-forming factor alongside parent material, climate, topography, organisms, and time in standard pedology texts. It describes a state or land use rather than a fundamental process driver.

The CLORPT model (Climate, Organisms, Relief, Parent material, Time) is a widely used framework to describe the main factors affecting soil formation. Human activities are considered part of the ‘Organisms’ factor, but ‘human habitation’ in isolation is not a distinct primary factor in the same category as climate or parent material.

28. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of layers as we mov

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of layers as we move from the Earth’s surface upwards?

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Troposphere, Stratosphere, Thermosphere, Mesosphere

Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere

Thermosphere, Mesosphere, Stratosphere, Troposphere

Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Troposphere, Thermosphere

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The correct option is B, Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Thermosphere.

The Earth’s atmosphere is divided into several layers based on temperature profiles and composition as we move upwards from the surface. The principal layers, in order from the Earth’s surface outwards, are:
1. **Troposphere:** The lowest layer, where most weather occurs. Temperature generally decreases with altitude.
2. **Stratosphere:** Above the troposphere, contains the ozone layer. Temperature increases with altitude due to ozone absorption of UV radiation.
3. **Mesosphere:** Above the stratosphere. Temperature decreases with altitude; it is the coldest layer. Most meteors burn up here.
4. **Thermosphere:** Above the mesosphere. Temperature increases sharply with altitude due to absorption of high-energy solar radiation by sparse gas molecules. The International Space Station orbits here.
Above the thermosphere is the Exosphere, transitioning into outer space.

The given options only list the first four main layers. The correct sequence starting from the surface is Troposphere, followed by Stratosphere, then Mesosphere, and finally Thermosphere among the layers listed.

29. The Earth’s atmosphere is mainly heated by which one of the following

The Earth’s atmosphere is mainly heated by which one of the following ?

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Short wave solar radiation

Reflected solar radiation

Long wave terrestrial radiation

Scattered solar radiation

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The correct option is C, Long wave terrestrial radiation.

The Earth’s atmosphere is primarily heated indirectly. Incoming shortwave solar radiation (A) passes through the atmosphere with relatively little absorption, directly heating the Earth’s surface. The heated surface then emits energy in the form of longwave infrared radiation (C). Greenhouse gases in the atmosphere (like carbon dioxide, water vapor, methane, etc.) are efficient absorbers of this longwave terrestrial radiation. This absorption by greenhouse gases is the main process by which the atmosphere is heated, particularly in the lower layers (troposphere).

Reflected solar radiation (B) does not heat the atmosphere; it is simply bounced back into space or scattered (D). While scattered solar radiation contributes to diffuse light and some heating, the primary heating mechanism for the bulk of the atmosphere, especially the troposphere, is the absorption of outgoing longwave radiation emitted by the Earth’s surface – the greenhouse effect.

30. Which one of the following statements about biodiversity is not correc

Which one of the following statements about biodiversity is not correct ?

The term 'biodiversity' was coined by Walter G. Rosen in 1986.

The term 'biodiversity hotspots' was coined by Norman Myers in 1988.

The regions having richest biodiversity are called 'biodiversity hotspots'.

More than 100 hotspots of biodiversity are identified in the world.

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The correct option is D, More than 100 hotspots of biodiversity are identified in the world.

Let’s evaluate each statement:
A) The term ‘biodiversity’ was indeed coined by Walter G. Rosen in 1986 during the first National Forum on Biological Diversity.
B) The term ‘biodiversity hotspots’ was coined by Norman Myers in 1988.
C) Biodiversity hotspots are defined as regions with a high level of endemic species that are also under significant threat of habitat loss. They represent areas with particularly rich biodiversity, but are also vulnerable.
D) The number of identified biodiversity hotspots is significantly less than 100. Norman Myers initially identified 10 in 1988 and added 8 more in 1990. Conservation International, which is the leading body in this area, currently recognizes 36 biodiversity hotspots globally.

A biodiversity hotspot must meet two strict criteria: it must have at least 1,500 vascular plants as endemics (which means it has a high percentage of plant life found nowhere else on Earth) and it must have 30% or less of its original natural vegetation (it must be threatened). The 36 hotspots currently identified contain over half of the world’s vascular plant species as endemics and 42% of all terrestrial vertebrates as endemics, all within just 2.5% of the Earth’s land surface. Statement D is factually incorrect regarding the number of identified hotspots.

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