41. In India, the term “Public Key Infrastructure” is used in the context

In India, the term “Public Key Infrastructure” is used in the context of

Digital security infrastructure
Food security infrastructure
Health care and education infrastructure
Telecommunication and transportation infrastructure
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2020
Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) is a system used to create, manage, distribute, use, store, and revoke digital certificates. Digital certificates bind public keys to identities, providing a way to verify the authenticity of parties involved in digital transactions.
PKI is a fundamental component of digital security infrastructure, enabling secure communication, electronic transactions, and digital signatures through cryptography. It ensures trust in the digital world by verifying identities and encrypting data.
Components of a typical PKI include Certificate Authorities (CAs), Registration Authorities (RAs), a central directory (like LDAP), a Certificate Management System, and potentially Certificate Revocation Lists (CRLs) or Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) responders. PKI is essential for applications like secure web browsing (HTTPS), email encryption, and secure digital transactions. Options B, C, and D relate to physical infrastructure or specific societal sectors, which are not directly associated with the technical term “Public Key Infrastructure”.

42. What is the importance of using Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines in Ind

What is the importance of using Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines in India ?

  1. These vaccines are effective against pneumonia as well as meningitis and sepsis.
  2. Dependence on antibiotics that are not effective against drug-resistant bacteria can be reduced.
  3. These vaccines have no side effects and cause no allergic reactions.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 only
1 and 2 only
3 only
1, 2 and 3
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2020
Statements 1 and 2 highlight important benefits of using Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines (PCVs) in India.
Statement 1: Pneumococcal bacteria (*Streptococcus pneumoniae*) are a major cause of several serious illnesses, including pneumonia, meningitis (infection of the membranes covering the brain and spinal cord), and sepsis (bloodstream infection), particularly in young children and the elderly. PCVs protect against infection by the most common and dangerous strains of these bacteria, thereby preventing these diseases. Correct.
Statement 2: By preventing pneumococcal infections, PCVs significantly reduce the incidence of pneumonia, meningitis, and sepsis. This, in turn, reduces the need for antibiotic treatment for these conditions. Lowering the overall use of antibiotics helps to slow down the development and spread of antibiotic-resistant bacteria, which is a growing global health crisis. Correct.
Statement 3: While PCVs are generally safe and effective, no vaccine is completely free of side effects or the potential for allergic reactions. Common side effects are usually mild, such as fever, redness or swelling at the injection site, and irritability. Serious allergic reactions are rare but possible with any vaccine. Therefore, the statement that these vaccines have *no* side effects and cause *no* allergic reactions is incorrect.
PCVs are included in India’s Universal Immunization Programme (UIP) to protect children against pneumococcal diseases. Vaccination is a key strategy for preventing infectious diseases and combating antimicrobial resistance.

43. Consider the following statements : Genetic changes can be introduce

Consider the following statements :

  • Genetic changes can be introduced in the cells that produce eggs or sperms of a prospective parent.
  • A person’s genome can be edited before birth at the early embryonic stage.
  • Human induced pluripotent stem cells can be injected into the embryo of a pig.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1 only
2 and 3 only
2 only
1, 2 and 3
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2020
All three statements are correct descriptions of capabilities or research areas in genetic technologies.
Statement 1: Genetic changes can be introduced in germline cells (cells that produce eggs or sperm) using gene editing technologies like CRISPR-Cas9. This is technically feasible, meaning the capabilities exist to perform such modifications. However, editing the germline in humans is highly controversial due to ethical concerns regarding heritable changes and is subject to strict regulations or prohibitions in most countries. The statement says “can be introduced”, which is true from a technical standpoint. Correct.
Statement 2: A person’s genome can be edited at a very early stage of development, such as the embryonic stage before implantation or shortly after. This is known as embryo editing or pre-implantation genetic modification. Gene editing tools can be applied to correct genetic mutations in embryos. Similar to germline editing, this is technically possible but raises significant ethical debates and regulatory challenges. Correct.
Statement 3: Human induced pluripotent stem cells (iPSCs) or human embryonic stem cells can be injected into the embryos of other species, such as pigs or sheep, to create human-animal chimeras. The goal of such research is often to study human development, model diseases, or potentially grow human tissues or organs within the animal host for future transplantation purposes. This is an active area of biomedical research. Correct.
Advances in genetic engineering, particularly the development of precise gene editing tools like CRISPR, have opened up new possibilities but also raised complex ethical, legal, and social questions regarding their application in humans and other organisms.

44. “The experiment will employ a trio of spacecraft flying in formation i

“The experiment will employ a trio of spacecraft flying in formation in the shape of an equilateral triangle that has sides one million kilometres long, with lasers shining between the craft.” The experiment in question refers to

Voyager-2
New Horizons
LISA Pathfinder
Evolved LISA
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2020
The description refers to the Evolved LISA mission.
The experiment described involves three spacecraft flying in a specific formation (equilateral triangle with sides measuring one million kilometers) and using lasers shining between them. This configuration and method are designed to detect gravitational waves by precisely measuring the tiny changes in the distances between the spacecraft caused by passing gravitational waves.
Voyager-2 and New Horizons are spacecraft designed for planetary exploration, not gravitational wave detection.
LISA Pathfinder was a single spacecraft technology demonstrator mission for the LISA concept, proving the feasibility of housing free-falling test masses and measuring their motion with extreme precision, but it did not involve three separate spacecraft measuring distances over millions of kilometers.
Evolved LISA (Laser Interferometer Space Antenna) is a planned space mission by ESA and NASA that will consist of three spacecraft forming an equilateral triangle with sides approximately 2.5 million kilometers long. It will use laser interferometry between the spacecraft to detect gravitational waves in the millihertz frequency range, which are expected from sources like merging supermassive black holes and binaries of compact objects in our galaxy. The description in the question, while giving slightly different side length (one million km vs 2.5 million km), accurately captures the core concept of the Evolved LISA mission design for gravitational wave detection in space.
Ground-based gravitational wave detectors like LIGO and Virgo operate on Earth and are sensitive to higher frequency gravitational waves. Space-based detectors like LISA are necessary to detect lower frequency gravitational waves that cannot be observed from the ground due to terrestrial noise.

45. Consider the following activities : Spraying pesticides on a crop fi

Consider the following activities :

  • Spraying pesticides on a crop field
  • Inspecting the craters of active volcanoes
  • Collecting breath samples from spouting whales for DNA analysis

At the present level of technology, which of the above activities can be successfully carried out by using drones ?

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2020
All three listed activities can be successfully carried out using drones at the present level of technology.
Activity 1: Spraying pesticides on a crop field. Drones equipped with spray tanks and nozzles are increasingly used in agriculture for precision spraying of pesticides, fertilizers, and herbicides. They can cover fields quickly and accurately, often more efficiently and with less chemical waste than traditional methods. This is a well-established drone application. Correct.
Activity 2: Inspecting the craters of active volcanoes. Volcanoes are hazardous environments for humans due to heat, toxic gases, and unpredictable eruptions. Drones can be flown into volcanic craters to collect visual data, thermal imagery, and atmospheric gas samples, providing valuable information for monitoring and research without putting scientists at risk. This is a demonstrated application of drones. Correct.
Activity 3: Collecting breath samples from spouting whales for DNA analysis. Researchers use drones to fly over whales and collect samples of the “snot” (exhaled breath and mucus) from their blowholes using collection plates attached to the drone. These samples contain DNA, hormones, and microbiome data, which are crucial for studying whale health and populations. This is a less invasive method compared to traditional biopsy darts and is successfully being used in marine biology. Correct.
Drones, or Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), have evolved significantly and are used across numerous sectors due to their versatility, ability to access difficult or dangerous areas, and capacity to carry various sensors and payloads.

46. With reference to carbon nanotubes, consider the following statements:

With reference to carbon nanotubes, consider the following statements:

  • They can be used as carriers of drugs and antigens in the human body.
  • They can be made into artificial blood capillaries for an injured part of human body.
  • They can be used in biochemical sensors.
  • Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

1 and 2 only
2, 3 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only
1, 2, 3 and 4
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2020
According to the official answer key for UPSC Prelims 2020, all four statements are considered correct.
Statement 1: Carbon nanotubes (CNTs) have a high surface area and can be functionalized to attach drugs, proteins, and antigens. They are widely researched as potential drug delivery systems and carriers for vaccines in the human body. Correct.
Statement 2: CNTs possess high strength and unique electrical properties, making them candidates for use in biomaterials. Research is ongoing to explore their potential in tissue engineering, including creating scaffolds or artificial structures that could mimic biological tissues like blood capillaries. Correct.
Statement 3: CNTs exhibit changes in electrical conductivity upon binding with specific molecules. This property makes them excellent candidates for use in highly sensitive biochemical sensors for detecting various substances, including biomarkers, pathogens, and environmental pollutants. Correct.
Statement 4: While pristine carbon nanotubes are generally considered poorly biodegradable and their persistence in the body or environment is a concern, significant research efforts are focused on modifying or functionalizing CNTs to make them biodegradable for biomedical and environmental applications. Some types of functionalized CNTs have shown evidence of enzymatic or cellular degradation. Therefore, depending on the specific type and context, biodegradability can be considered a relevant property or a goal being actively pursued and achieved in specific cases, leading to this statement being considered correct in a broad sense.
Carbon nanotubes are allotropes of carbon with cylindrical nanostructure. They have exceptional mechanical, electrical, thermal, and optical properties, leading to diverse applications in electronics, materials science, energy, and biomedicine. Their potential interaction with biological systems and environmental fate are active areas of research.

47. In India, under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the followin

In India, under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits ?

  • 1. Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one’s computer
  • 2. Cost of a new computer if some miscreant willfully damages it, if proved so
  • 3. Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion
  • 4. Cost of defence in the Court of Law if any third party files a suit

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1, 2 and 4 only
1, 3 and 4 only
2 and 3 only
1, 2, 3 and 4
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2020
Statements 1, 3, and 4 generally describe benefits covered under cyber insurance for individuals.
Statement 1: Cyber insurance policies for individuals typically cover costs associated with restoring one’s computer system, removing malware, or recovering data compromised by cyber attacks or infections. This is a standard coverage. Correct.
Statement 2: While some comprehensive policies or riders might exist, the primary focus of cyber insurance is not on covering the cost of replacing hardware that is physically damaged, even if the damage is caused by a miscreant. Physical damage is usually covered by standard property or home insurance. Cyber insurance focuses on financial losses, data loss/recovery, system restoration, cyber extortion, identity theft, and associated legal costs resulting from cyber events. This is generally *not* a standard cyber insurance benefit. Incorrect.
Statement 3: Cyber extortion, such as ransomware attacks, is a key risk covered by individual cyber insurance. This coverage often includes the cost of hiring specialists (like cybersecurity consultants or negotiators) to help resolve the extortion demand and minimize loss. Correct.
Statement 4: If a cyber incident originating from an individual’s system (e.g., spreading malware, involvement in a botnet) causes harm to a third party, leading to a lawsuit, cyber insurance can cover the legal costs for defence in court. This falls under the liability aspect of cyber insurance. Correct.
Cyber insurance for individuals is a relatively new but growing area, providing financial protection against various cyber risks such as online fraud, identity theft, cyber bullying, data breaches, and system damage from malware or hacking. The specific coverages can vary depending on the policy provider and plan.

48. Consider the following statements : 1. In terms of short-term credit

Consider the following statements :

  • 1. In terms of short-term credit delivery to the agriculture sector, District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs) deliver more credit in comparison to Scheduled Commercial Banks and Regional Rural Banks.
  • 2. One of the most important functions of DCCBs is to provide funds to the Primary Agricultural Credit Societies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2020
Statement 2 is correct, while Statement 1 is incorrect.
Statement 1: District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs) are an important part of the short-term cooperative credit structure. However, Scheduled Commercial Banks (SCBs) typically account for the largest share of total agricultural credit disbursed in India, including short-term credit, followed by Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) and then the cooperative sector (which includes State Cooperative Banks, DCCBs, and PACS). Therefore, the statement that DCCBs deliver more credit than SCBs and RRBs is incorrect.
Statement 2: The short-term cooperative credit structure is a three-tiered system: State Cooperative Banks (SCBs) at the state level, District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs) at the district level, and Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS) at the village level. DCCBs act as a link between SCBs and PACS. A crucial function of DCCBs is indeed to channel funds received from SCBs (or refinanced by NABARD) to the PACS, which then provide credit directly to the farmers. This statement is correct.
The cooperative credit structure plays a vital role in providing financial services to rural areas, especially to small and marginal farmers. However, the cooperative sector has faced challenges related to governance, financial health, and competition from commercial banks and RRBs over the years. Recapitalization and reforms have been undertaken to strengthen the cooperative credit institutions.

49. With reference to the Indian economy after the 1991 economic liberaliz

With reference to the Indian economy after the 1991 economic liberalization, consider the following statements:

  • 1. Worker productivity (₹ per worker at 2004 – 05 prices) increased in urban areas while it decreased in rural areas.
  • 2. The percentage share of rural areas in the workforce steadily increased.
  • 3. In rural areas, the growth in non-farm economy increased.
  • 4. The growth rate in rural employment decreased.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1 and 2 only
3 and 4 only
3 only
1, 2 and 4 only
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2020
Statements 3 and 4 are correct regarding the Indian economy after the 1991 economic liberalization.
Statement 1: While worker productivity generally increased post-1991 in India, particularly in urban-based industries and services, stating that it *decreased* in rural areas is not a universally accepted or clearly demonstrable trend across the entire rural economy. Agricultural productivity growth was uneven, but non-farm rural productivity likely increased. This statement is questionable.
Statement 2: Post-liberalization India has experienced increasing urbanization and migration from rural to urban areas in search of better employment opportunities. This trend typically leads to a decrease, or at least not a steady increase, in the percentage share of rural areas in the workforce. This statement is incorrect.
Statement 3: Economic liberalization fostered growth in non-agricultural sectors. In rural areas, this led to significant growth in the non-farm economy (manufacturing, construction, trade, services), providing alternative sources of income and employment outside traditional agriculture. This statement is correct.
Statement 4: The growth rate in rural employment, particularly in agriculture, slowed down significantly after 1991 compared to the pre-reform period. While the non-farm sector absorbed some labor, overall rural employment growth often lagged behind the growth in the labor force, leading to concerns about jobless growth. This statement is correct.
The post-1991 period saw structural shifts in the Indian economy, with a decline in the share of agriculture in GDP and a rise in the share of services and industry. While overall economic growth accelerated, its impact on employment generation and rural livelihoods has been a subject of debate and analysis. The growth of the rural non-farm sector and the slowdown in agricultural employment are key features of this period.

50. If the RBI decides to adopt an expansionist monetary policy, which of

If the RBI decides to adopt an expansionist monetary policy, which of the following would it not do?

  • 1. Cut and optimize the Statutory Liquidity Ratio
  • 2. Increase the Marginal Standing Facility Rate
  • 3. Cut the Bank Rate and Repo Rate

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 and 2 only
2 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2020
In an expansionist (or loose) monetary policy, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) aims to increase the money supply and credit availability in the economy to stimulate growth.
Statement 1: Cutting the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) reduces the percentage of net demand and time liabilities (NDTL) that banks must hold in liquid assets (like government securities). This releases more funds for banks to lend, increasing liquidity and credit, which is an expansionist measure. So, RBI *would* do this.
Statement 2: Increasing the Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) Rate makes it more expensive for banks to borrow overnight funds from the RBI when there is a significant liquidity deficit. This tightens liquidity in the banking system, which is a contractionary measure. RBI would *not* do this in an expansionist policy.
Statement 3: Cutting the Bank Rate and Repo Rate reduces the cost at which commercial banks can borrow money from the RBI (long-term via Bank Rate, short-term via Repo Rate). Lower borrowing costs encourage banks to lend more, increasing liquidity and credit, which is an expansionist measure. So, RBI *would* do this.
The question asks what RBI would *not* do. Among the given statements, only statement 2 describes an action that is contrary to an expansionist monetary policy.
RBI uses various tools for monetary policy, including policy rates (Repo Rate, Reverse Repo Rate, MSF Rate, Bank Rate), reserve ratios (CRR, SLR), and open market operations (OMOs). An expansionist stance typically involves lowering policy rates, reducing reserve requirements, and buying government securities through OMOs, all aimed at injecting liquidity and lowering borrowing costs in the economy.