UPSC IAS Archives

41. Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cel

Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body ?

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They protect the body from environmental allergens.

They alleviate the body's pain and inflammation.

They act as immunosuppressants in the body.

They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens.

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The correct answer is D) They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens.

B cells and T cells are lymphocytes, which are key components of the adaptive immune system. Their primary role is to recognize specific pathogens (like bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites) and mount a targeted immune response to eliminate them and prevent diseases.
B cells produce antibodies that neutralize pathogens or mark them for destruction. T cells directly kill infected cells (cytotoxic T cells), help other immune cells (helper T cells), or regulate the immune response (regulatory T cells).

While immune responses involving B and T cells can contribute to inflammation (which is part of healing but also causes pain), their main function is not to alleviate pain or inflammation directly (Option B). They are crucial for developing immunity, not immunosuppression (Option C), though certain subsets of T cells are regulatory. While they are involved in responses to allergens, their role in protecting against pathogens is their fundamental and primary function (Option A vs. D).

42. The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Som

The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple at Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple ?

1. Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines.
2. A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni.
3. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

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The correct answer is A) 1 and 2 only.

Statement 1 is correct. Somnath Temple is traditionally considered the first among the twelve Jyotirlinga shrines of Shiva.
Statement 2 is correct. The medieval Islamic historian and scholar Al-Biruni described the Somnath temple in his Kitab-ul-Hind, noting its immense wealth.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The Pran Pratishtha (installation) of the present temple structure was performed by the first President of India, Dr. Rajendra Prasad, on May 11, 1951. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan was the second President of India.

The Somnath Temple has a long and complex history, having been destroyed and rebuilt several times. The current structure was reconstructed after India’s independence. The temple is located in Veraval, Saurashtra, Gujarat.

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43. The world’s second tallest statue in sitting pose of Ramanuja was inau

The world’s second tallest statue in sitting pose of Ramanuja was inaugurated by the Prime Minister of India at Hyderabad recently. Which one of the following correctly represents the teachings of Ramanuja ?

The best means of salvation was devotion.

Vedas are eternal, self-existent and wholly authoritative.

Logical arguments were essential means for the highest bliss.

Salvation was to be obtained through meditation.

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The correct answer is A) The best means of salvation was devotion.

Ramanuja (1017-1137 CE) was a prominent philosopher, theologian, and social reformer. He was the most important Acharya of the Sri Vaishnavism tradition and a leading proponent of Vishishtadvaita philosophy. A central tenet of his teaching is that *bhakti* (devotion) to Vishnu is the most effective and primary means for an individual soul to attain *moksha* (salvation or liberation). He emphasized surrender (*prapatti*) to God’s grace. The statue inaugurated is called the ‘Statue of Equality’, reflecting his message of equality and devotion being accessible to all sections of society.

While Ramanuja respected the Vedas (B), his philosophy did not hold them to be solely self-existent independent of God’s will. He used logical arguments extensively in his commentaries (like Sri Bhashya on the Brahmasutras) (C), but logic was a tool for understanding, not the *primary* means for salvation. Meditation (D) was part of the spiritual practice, but it was devotion (*bhakti*) that he stressed as the ultimate path to liberation.

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44. “Yogavasistha” was translated into Persian by Nizamuddin Panipati duri

“Yogavasistha” was translated into Persian by Nizamuddin Panipati during the reign of :

Akbar

Humayun

Shahjahan

Aurangzeb

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The correct answer is A) Akbar.

The translation of the Sanskrit philosophical text “Yogavasistha” into Persian was undertaken by Nizamuddin Panipati during the reign of the Mughal Emperor Akbar. Akbar was known for his interest in religious and philosophical discussions and patronised the translation of various Indian texts into Persian.

Other notable Sanskrit works translated into Persian during Akbar’s reign include the Mahabharata (as Razmnama), Ramayana, Atharva Veda, and Panchatantra. These translations were part of Akbar’s efforts to foster understanding and syncretism between different religious and cultural traditions in his empire.

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45. Which one of the following statements about Sangam literature in ancie

Which one of the following statements about Sangam literature in ancient South India is correct ?

Sangam poems are devoid of any reference to material culture.

The social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets.

Sangam poems have no reference to warrior ethic.

Sangam literature refers to magical forces as irrational.

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The correct answer is B) The social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets.

Sangam literature, particularly the *Puram* poems, reflects a society with distinct social classifications. While the exact imposition of the North Indian Varna system is debated by scholars, the texts mention Brahmins (priestly class), kings/chiefs (rulers), merchants, and agriculturalists (*velalas*) as significant social groups, indicating an awareness and presence of hierarchical social divisions akin to the varna concept, adapted to the South Indian context.

A) Sangam poems contain numerous references to material culture, including details about warfare, trade, agriculture, clothes, ornaments, and urban life. So, statement A is incorrect.
C) Sangam literature, especially *Puram* literature, extensively deals with the warrior ethic, heroism, battles, and the lives of kings and warriors. So, statement C is incorrect.
D) Sangam literature reflects a complex worldview including beliefs in various deities, spirits, omens, and religious rituals. It does not necessarily refer to all magical forces as irrational in the modern sense; these were part of their accepted reality. So, statement D is incorrect.

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46. Consider the following pairs: King Dynasty 1. Nannuka — Chan

Consider the following pairs:

King	Dynasty
1. Nannuka	— Chandela
2. Jayashakti	— Paramara
3. Nagabhata II	— Gurjara-Pratihara
4. Bhoja	— Rashtrakuta

How many pairs given above are correctly matched ?

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Only one pair

Only two pairs

Only three pairs

All four pairs

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The correct answer is B) Only two pairs.

1. Nannuka: Was the founder of the Chandela dynasty in the early 9th century. Correct.
2. Jayashakti: Was a ruler of the Chandela dynasty, grandson of Nannuka. The region Jejakabhukti was named after him. He was not a Paramara ruler. Incorrect.
3. Nagabhata II: Was a prominent ruler of the Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty in the early 9th century, known for expanding the empire. Correct.
4. Bhoja: While there was a famous Paramara king named Bhoja (Raja Bhoj of Dhara), there was no prominent king named Bhoja in the Rashtrakuta dynasty. The most famous Bhoja contemporary to the Rashtrakutas was Mihira Bhoja (Gurjara-Pratihara). Incorrect.

The Rashtrakuta dynasty’s important rulers included Dantidurga (founder), Krishna I, Dhruva Dharavarsha, Govinda III, Amoghavarsha I, Krishna III, etc.

47. Consider the following pairs: Site of Ashoka’s major rock edicts

Consider the following pairs:

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Site of Ashoka’s major rock edicts	Location in the State of
1. Dhauli	— Odisha
2. Erragudi	— Andhra Pradesh
3. Jaugada	— Madhya Pradesh
4. Kalsi	— Karnataka

How many pairs given above are correctly matched ?

Only one pair

Only two pairs

Only three pairs

All four pairs

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Answer is Wrong!

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The correct answer is B) Only two pairs.

1. Dhauli: Located near Bhubaneswar, Odisha. This is a site of a major rock edict of Ashoka. Correct.
2. Erragudi (Yerragudi): Located in Kurnool district, Andhra Pradesh. This is a site of a major rock edict of Ashoka. Correct.
3. Jaugada: Located in Ganjam district, Odisha. This is a site of a major rock edict of Ashoka, not Madhya Pradesh. Incorrect.
4. Kalsi: Located in Dehradun district, Uttarakhand. This is a site of a major rock edict of Ashoka, not Karnataka. Incorrect.

The other major rock edict sites include Girnar (Gujarat), Kalsi (Uttarakhand), Manshera (Pakistan), Shahbazgarhi (Pakistan), Sopara (Maharashtra), Erragudi (Andhra Pradesh), Dhauli (Odisha), and Jaugada (Odisha). Minor rock edicts and pillar edicts are found at various other locations.

48. Consider the following statements : 1. In India, there is no law res

Consider the following statements :

1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies.
2. In 1991, Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
3. As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

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1 only

2 only

1 and 3

2 and 3

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The correct answer is B) 2 only.

Statement 1 is incorrect. Section 33(7) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, was amended in 1996 to restrict a candidate from contesting a general election or a group of bye-elections or elections to Rajya Sabha/Legislative Councils from more than two constituencies. Therefore, contesting from three constituencies is not allowed under the current law.
Statement 2 is correct. Before the 1996 amendment, there was no such restriction. Shri Devi Lal, among others (like Atal Bihari Vajpayee in 1957), contested from multiple constituencies. In the 1991 Lok Sabha election, Shri Devi Lal contested from Sikar, Rohtak, and Amethi constituencies.
Statement 3 is incorrect. There have been recommendations from the Election Commission and Law Commission to hold candidates or parties responsible for the cost of bye-elections caused by a candidate winning multiple seats and vacating all but one. However, these recommendations have not been enacted into law. The cost of conducting bye-elections is currently borne by the public exchequer.

The restriction to two constituencies was introduced to prevent candidates from winning multiple seats and then causing expensive bye-elections by vacating all but one.

49. ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the Constitutio

‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India?

Article 15

Article 19

Article 21

Article 29

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The correct answer is C) Article 21.

In the landmark judgment of Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) vs Union of India (2017), the Supreme Court of India unanimously held that the Right to Privacy is a Fundamental Right protected under the Constitution. While the Court noted that privacy has multiple facets that may overlap with other rights (like Article 19), it primarily rooted the Right to Privacy in the Right to Life and Personal Liberty guaranteed by Article 21.

Article 15 prohibits discrimination, Article 19 guarantees various freedoms (like speech, assembly), and Article 29 protects the interests of minorities. While aspects of privacy might relate to these articles, the comprehensive right to privacy as recognised by the Supreme Court is considered an intrinsic part of Article 21.

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50. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following stateme

With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements :

1. N. Gopalaswamy Iyengar Committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it.
2. In 1970, the Department of Personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime Minister’s charge.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

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The correct answer is B) 2 only.

Statement 2 is correct. The Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) headed by Morarji Desai submitted its report in 1966. One of its key recommendations was the creation of a Department of Personnel. This Department was constituted in 1970 and placed under the direct charge of the Prime Minister to underscore the importance of personnel administration.
Statement 1 is incorrect. While the N. Gopalaswamy Iyengar Committee (1949) made significant recommendations for the reorganisation of the central government machinery and administrative improvements, the specific suggestion of designating a minister and a secretary solely for administrative reform and promoting it is not primarily associated with this committee. Various mechanisms for overseeing administrative reforms have been suggested and implemented over time, often involving departments under the Prime Minister or Cabinet Secretariat.

The Department of Personnel was later merged with the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances to form the Department of Personnel and Training (DoPT), which remains a key body under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, reporting to the Prime Minister.

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