UPSC IAS

41. Despite being a high saving economy, capital formation may not result

Despite being a high saving economy, capital formation may not result in significant increase in output due to

Subscribe on YouTube
weak administrative machinery
illiteracy
high population density
high capital-output ratio
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2018
Download PDFAttempt Online
The correct answer is D) high capital-output ratio.
The capital-output ratio (COR) is an economic metric that describes the relationship between the amount of capital invested in an economy and the amount of output it produces. A high COR indicates that a large amount of capital is required to produce a given increase in output.
In a high-saving economy, a significant portion of national income is saved and potentially converted into investment (capital formation). However, if the economy suffers from a high capital-output ratio, the efficiency of converting this capital investment into actual output growth is low. This can happen due to various reasons like inefficient investment allocation, long gestation periods of projects, poor infrastructure, technological backwardness, or structural rigidities, all of which make each unit of capital less productive in generating output. Therefore, high savings and capital formation might not translate into a proportionally high increase in output if the capital-output ratio is high.

Join Our Telegram Channel

42. Consider the following statements: Human capital formation as a concep

Consider the following statements:
Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process which enables

Join Our Telegram Channel
  • individuals of a country to accumulate more capital.
  • increasing the knowledge, skill levels and capacities of the people of the country.
  • accumulation of tangible wealth.
  • accumulation of intangible wealth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1 and 2
2 only
2 and 4
1, 3 and 4
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2018
Download PDFAttempt Online
The correct answer is C.
Human capital formation refers to the process of increasing the stock of human capital within a population. Human capital consists of the knowledge, skills, competencies, and other attributes embodied in individuals that are relevant to economic activity.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Accumulating *more capital* generally refers to physical or financial capital, not human capital.
Statement 2 is correct: Increasing the knowledge, skill levels, and capacities of people directly describes the process of human capital formation (e.g., through education, training, healthcare).
Statement 3 is incorrect: Human capital is considered an *intangible* form of wealth, not tangible.
Statement 4 is correct: Human capital formation involves the accumulation of intangible wealth in the form of knowledge, skills, health, etc.
Therefore, statements 2 and 4 correctly explain human capital formation.
Human capital is considered a key driver of economic growth and development. Investments in human capital through education, health, and training are analogous to investments in physical capital; they enhance productivity and earning potential. The concept was significantly developed by economists like Gary Becker and Theodore Schultz.

Subscribe on YouTube

43. Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher l

Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development, if

Subscribe on YouTube
industrial output fails to keep pace with agricultural output.
agricultural output fails to keep pace with industrial output.
poverty and unemployment increase.
imports grow faster than exports.
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2018
Download PDFAttempt Online
The correct answer is C.
Economic development is a broader concept than economic growth (measured by metrics like GNP/GDP). While growth in real per capita GNP indicates an increase in the average income/output per person, it does not guarantee improved living standards or overall welfare for all. If poverty and unemployment increase alongside GNP growth, it suggests that the benefits of growth are concentrated among certain segments of the population, inequality is rising, and structural issues prevent job creation. This scenario indicates that economic growth is not leading to inclusive or equitable development.
Economic development typically involves not just quantitative growth but also qualitative improvements in areas such as health, education, income distribution, poverty reduction, and environmental sustainability. High GNP growth coupled with increasing poverty and unemployment points to a failure in translating economic expansion into broad-based improvements in human well-being.

Join Our Telegram Channel

44. If a commodity is provided free to the public by the Government, then

If a commodity is provided free to the public by the Government, then

Subscribe on YouTube
the opportunity cost is zero.
the opportunity cost is ignored.
the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the tax-paying public.
the opportunity cost is transferred from the consumers of the product to the Government.
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2018
Download PDFAttempt Online
The correct answer is C.
Opportunity cost is the value of the next-best alternative use of resources. When the government provides a commodity for free, the resources used to produce or acquire that commodity are not free from the perspective of society or the economy. Those resources (labor, materials, capital) could have been used to produce other goods or services. The cost of these foregone alternatives is the opportunity cost. Since the consumer doesn’t pay for the commodity, the burden of this opportunity cost (funding the production/acquisition) is shifted to the general public, primarily through taxes. Taxpayers pay for the resources used by the government, effectively bearing the opportunity cost that consumers would have borne through direct payment.
Option A is incorrect because resources have alternative uses, hence the opportunity cost is not zero. Option B is incorrect because while consumers might ignore the opportunity cost personally, it exists from society’s perspective. Option D is partially correct in that the cost is borne by the government budget, but it is more precise to say the cost is transferred *from* the consumers *to* the tax-paying public, who fund the government budget.

Join Our Telegram Channel

45. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning

Which one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal tender money ?

Join Our Telegram Channel
The money which is tendered in courts of law to defray the fee of legal cases
The money which a creditor is under compulsion to accept in settlement of his claims
The bank money in the form of cheques, drafts, bills of exchange, etc.
The metallic money in circulation in a country
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2018
Download PDFAttempt Online
The correct answer is B.
Legal tender money is currency (coins and banknotes) that is legally valid for the fulfillment of a financial obligation. A creditor is legally compelled to accept legal tender in settlement of a debt. The refusal to accept legal tender money in payment of a debt discharges the debtor from the obligation to pay that amount.
Option A is incorrect as legal tender is not specifically for court fees, though it can be used for them. Option C is incorrect as cheques, drafts, and bills of exchange are types of “bank money” or “credit money” and their acceptance is voluntary, not compulsory legal tender. Option D is too narrow; while metallic money can be legal tender, the definition applies to any form of currency that the law designates as such, including banknotes, and the key characteristic is compulsory acceptance by creditors.

Subscribe on YouTube

46. Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule

Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law” ?

Join Our Telegram Channel
  • Limitation of powers
  • Equality before law
  • People’s responsibility to the Government
  • Liberty and civil rights

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
1, 2 and 4 only
1, 2, 3 and 4
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2018
Download PDFAttempt Online
The correct answer is C.
The Rule of Law is a principle under which all persons, institutions, and entities are accountable to laws that are publicly promulgated, equally enforced, and independently adjudicated, and which are consistent with international human rights norms and standards. Its main features include:
1. **Limitation of powers:** Government power is limited by law, preventing arbitrary rule.
2. **Equality before law:** All individuals, regardless of position, are subject to the same laws and judged by the same courts.
3. **Supremacy of law:** The law is supreme, not the government or any individual.
4. **Protection of fundamental rights (related to liberty and civil rights):** While not always listed as a core feature in classical definitions (like Dicey’s), modern interpretations widely acknowledge that the Rule of Law is essential for and intrinsically linked to the protection of liberty and civil rights.
Point 3, “People’s responsibility to the Government,” describes the duties of citizens, not a core feature defining the limits and operation of law on the government and its relationship with individuals, which is what the Rule of Law primarily concerns.
A.V. Dicey’s classic formulation of the Rule of Law included three principles: (1) the supremacy of regular law as opposed to the influence of arbitrary power; (2) equality before the law; and (3) the constitution being the result of the ordinary law of the land. Modern conceptions often expand on this to include notions of justice, fundamental rights, and procedural fairness. Based on the options, 1, 2, and 4 best represent the features or outcomes of the Rule of Law among the choices provided.

Subscribe on YouTube

47. With reference to cultural history of India, consider the following st

With reference to cultural history of India, consider the following statements:

Join Our Telegram Channel
  • Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna.
  • Tyagaraja created several new ragas.
  • Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries.
  • Annamacharya kirtanas are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

1 and 3 only
2 and 4 only
1, 2 and 3
2, 3 and 4
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2018
Download PDFAttempt Online
The correct answer is B.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Most of Tyagaraja’s Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Rama, not Lord Krishna. He is one of the greatest composers of Carnatic music and a prominent figure in the Bhakti tradition.
Statement 2 is correct. Tyagaraja is credited with composing thousands of Kritis and is known for creating several new ragas and developing existing ones, significantly contributing to the structure and theory of Carnatic music.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Annamacharya (Tallapaka Annamacharya) lived from 1408 to 1503, while Tyagaraja lived from 1767 to 1847. They were not contemporaries; Annamacharya preceded Tyagaraja by over two centuries.
Statement 4 is correct. Annamacharya was a prolific composer of kirtanas (devotional songs), predominantly in Telugu. He is considered the Andhra Pada Kavita Pitamaha (Grandfather of Telugu song-poetry) and composed thousands of songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara of Tirumala.
Tyagaraja, along with Muthuswami Dikshitar and Shyama Shastri, are considered the “Trinity” of Carnatic music, significantly shaping its form and content. Annamacharya’s compositions are considered the earliest examples of devotional songs in South India and are widely sung even today in temples, particularly at Tirumala.

Subscribe on YouTube

48. What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”, sometimes seen

What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news ?

Subscribe on YouTube
An Israeli radar system
India's indigenous anti-missile programme
An American anti-missile system
A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2018
Download PDFAttempt Online
The correct answer is C.
THAAD stands for Terminal High Altitude Area Defense. It is an American anti-missile system designed to intercept short, medium, and intermediate-range ballistic missiles in their terminal phase (descent or reentry) at high altitudes. It is developed and produced by Lockheed Martin.
THAAD is a key component of the United States’ ballistic missile defense strategy. It is a mobile system and can be deployed to various locations. Its purpose is to protect against missile attacks by destroying incoming missiles through a “hit-to-kill” mechanism. The deployment of THAAD, particularly in South Korea, has been a point of international discussion and tension, especially with China.

Join Our Telegram Channel

49. The well-known painting “Bani Thani” belongs to the

The well-known painting “Bani Thani” belongs to the

Subscribe on YouTube
Bundi school
Jaipur school
Kangra school
Kishangarh school
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2018
Download PDFAttempt Online
The correct answer is D.
“Bani Thani” is a famous painting from the Kishangarh school of Rajput painting in Rajasthan. It was painted by Nihal Chand during the reign of Sawant Singh (who wrote poetry under the name Nagari Das). The painting depicts a stylized ideal of a woman, believed to be Bani Thani, a singer and poet in Sawant Singh’s court. The style is characterized by idealized facial features, elongated limbs, and delicate lines.
The Kishangarh school developed as a distinct style within the broader Rajput painting tradition. It is particularly known for its portraits, especially those related to the legend of Bani Thani and Sawant Singh, often drawing parallels with the divine love story of Radha and Krishna. The painting “Bani Thani” is sometimes referred to as the “Indian Mona Lisa”.

Join Our Telegram Channel

50. Consider the following statements : 1. No criminal proceedings shal

Consider the following statements :

  • 1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.
  • 2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Subscribe on YouTube
1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2018
Download PDFAttempt Online
The correct answer is C.
Statement 1 is correct. Article 361(2) of the Constitution of India provides that no criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or continued against the President, or the Governor of a State, in any court during his term of office.
Statement 2 is correct. Article 158(4) states that the emoluments and allowances of the Governor shall not be diminished during his term of office. This provision ensures the financial security and independence of the office of the Governor.
Article 361 provides immunity to the President and Governors from certain legal proceedings. While they have immunity from criminal proceedings during their term, civil proceedings can be instituted against them with two months’ notice regarding acts done or purporting to be done by them in their personal capacity. The protection against diminution of emoluments and allowances is a standard feature for high constitutional offices to prevent the executive or legislature from using financial pressure to influence the officeholder.

Join Our Telegram Channel
Page 1Page 2Page 3Page 4Page 5
Test 1Test 2Test 3Test 4Test 5Test 6Test 7Test 8Test 9Test 10Test 11Test 12Test 13Test 14Test 15Test 16Test 17Test 18Test 19Test 20Test 21Test 22Test 23Test 24