UPSC IAS Archives

31. According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), which one of t

According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), which one of the following is the largest source of sulphur dioxide emissions ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Locomotives using fossil fuels” option2=”Ships using fossil fuels” option3=”Extraction of metals from ores” option4=”Power plants using fossil fuels” correct=”option4″]

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UPSC IAS – 2024

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The correct option is D.

According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) and most environmental agencies globally, the largest source of sulphur dioxide (SO2) emissions is the burning of fossil fuels, particularly coal, by power plants and other industrial facilities. Fossil fuels often contain sulphur, which is converted to SO2 when burned. Power plants, due to the large volume of fuel consumed, are the dominant source.

Other sources like locomotives, ships using fossil fuels, and metal extraction processes also contribute to SO2 emissions, but typically to a lesser extent compared to large power generation facilities. SO2 is a major air pollutant contributing to acid rain and respiratory problems.

32. Consider the following statements : The Red Sea receives very little

Consider the following statements :

The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form.
No water enters the Red Sea from rivers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option3″]

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UPSC IAS – 2024

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The correct option is C, as both statements are correct.

Statement 1 is correct because the Red Sea region is characterized by an arid to semi-arid climate with very low average annual precipitation. Statement 2 is also correct because the land areas surrounding the Red Sea are predominantly desert, lacking any major perennial rivers that would flow into the sea. The primary source of water input to the Red Sea is through exchange with the Gulf of Aden and evaporation is very high, leading to high salinity.

Due to limited precipitation and lack of riverine input combined with high evaporation rates, the Red Sea is one of the warmest and saltiest seas in the world. The primary water exchange occurs at its southern end through the Bab-el-Mandeb strait, connecting it to the Gulf of Aden and the Indian Ocean.

33. Consider the following statements: Statement-I : Sumed pipeline is a s

Consider the following statements:
Statement-I :
Sumed pipeline is a strategic route for Persian Gulf oil and natural gas shipments to Europe.
Statement-II :
Sumed pipeline connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I” option2=”Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I” option3=”Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect” option4=”Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct” correct=”option1″]

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UPSC IAS – 2024

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The correct option is A, as both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II explains Statement-I.

Statement-I correctly identifies the Sumed pipeline as a strategic route for oil and natural gas shipments from the Persian Gulf to Europe. Statement-II correctly describes the Sumed pipeline’s function, stating that it connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea. This geographical connection is precisely what makes it a strategic route for Persian Gulf energy exports to Europe, as it bypasses the need for tankers to navigate around the southern tip of Africa (Cape of Good Hope) or allows supertankers too large for the Suez Canal to transfer oil.

The Sumed pipeline (Suez-Mediterranean Pipeline) runs from Ain Sokhna on the Red Sea to Sidi Kerir on the Mediterranean Sea coast of Egypt. It serves as a vital alternative and supplementary route for transporting oil, particularly for very large crude carriers (VLCCs) that cannot fully traverse the Suez Canal. The oil is offloaded at the Red Sea terminal, transported via pipeline, and reloaded onto tankers at the Mediterranean terminal for onward shipment to Europe and North America.

34. Consider the following pairs : Country Reason for being in the

Consider the following pairs :

	Country	Reason for being in the news
1.	Argentina	Worst economic crisis
2.	Sudan	War between the country’s regular army and paramilitary forces
3.	Turkey	Rescinded its membership of NATO

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Only one pair” option2=”Only two pairs” option3=”All three pairs” option4=”None of the pairs” correct=”option2″]

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UPSC IAS – 2024

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The correct option is B, as only two of the given pairs are correctly matched.

The pair “Argentina – Worst economic crisis” is correctly matched, as Argentina has been experiencing severe economic challenges including high inflation and debt issues. The pair “Sudan – War between the country’s regular army and paramilitary forces” is correctly matched, as significant conflict between the Sudanese Armed Forces (SAF) and the Rapid Support Forces (RSF) erupted in 2023. The pair “Turkey – Rescinded its membership of NATO” is incorrectly matched, as Turkey remains a member of NATO.

Argentina’s economic crisis is characterized by hyperinflation, high poverty rates, and sovereign debt issues. The conflict in Sudan began in April 2023 and has caused a major humanitarian crisis. Turkey joined NATO in 1952 and is a strategically important member of the alliance.

35. Who of the following is the author of the books “The India Way” and “W

Who of the following is the author of the books “The India Way” and “Why Bharat Matters” ?

[amp_mcq option1=”Bhupender Yadav” option2=”Nalin Mehta” option3=”Shashi Tharoor” option4=”Subrahmanyam Jaishankar” correct=”option4″]

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UPSC IAS – 2024

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Both books, “The India Way: Strategies for an Uncertain World” (2020) and “Why Bharat Matters” (2024), are authored by Dr. Subrahmanyam Jaishankar, India’s current Minister of External Affairs.

Dr. S. Jaishankar is a prominent author on foreign policy and India’s global positioning.

Dr. Jaishankar is a career diplomat turned politician. His writings offer insights into India’s foreign policy perspectives, geopolitical strategies, and civilizational identity, drawing from his extensive experience in diplomacy and government.

36. With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements :

With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements :

1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament.
2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option2″]

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UPSC IAS – 2024

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Statement 1 is incorrect. According to Article 112 of the Constitution, the *President* of India shall cause to be laid before both Houses of Parliament the Annual Financial Statement (Union Budget). While the Finance Minister presents the budget on behalf of the government, the constitutional requirement is that the President causes it to be laid. Statement 2 is correct. According to Article 113(3) of the Constitution, no demand for a grant shall be made except on the recommendation of the President. This ensures presidential oversight over the initiation of expenditure proposals from the Consolidated Fund of India.

The President is constitutionally mandated to cause the Annual Financial Statement to be laid before Parliament, and demands for grants require the President’s recommendation.

The Annual Financial Statement is a statement of the estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India for that financial year. Article 113 outlines the procedure for dealing with estimates relating to expenditure in Parliament.

37. Consider the following statements : 1. It is the Governor of the Sta

Consider the following statements :

1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.
2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

[amp_mcq option1=”1 only” option2=”2 only” option3=”Both 1 and 2″ option4=”Neither 1 nor 2″ correct=”option2″]

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UPSC IAS – 2024

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Statement 1 is incorrect. According to Article 342 of the Constitution, the President of India, after consultation with the Governor of the concerned state, specifies the tribes or tribal communities or parts of or groups within tribes or tribal communities which shall be deemed to be Scheduled Tribes in relation to that state. The Governor has a consultative role, not the power of recognition and declaration. Statement 2 is correct. The list of Scheduled Tribes is state-specific. A community recognized as a Scheduled Tribe in one state is not automatically recognized as such in another state; it depends on the specific list for that state.

The President of India notifies Scheduled Tribes for each state, and the status is state-specific.

Parliament can by law include or exclude from the list of Scheduled Tribes specified in a notification issued under Article 342. The state-specific nature of the ST list reflects regional variations in tribal populations and their socio-economic conditions.

38. A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High

A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to :

[amp_mcq option1=”a government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action.” option2=”the Parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition.” option3=”the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.” option4=”the Government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy.” correct=”option3″]

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UPSC IAS – 2024

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A Writ of Prohibition is a judicial writ issued by a higher court (like the Supreme Court or a High Court) to a lower court or tribunal, ordering it to stop proceedings in a particular case because it is acting in excess of its jurisdiction or without jurisdiction.

The Writ of Prohibition is issued to a lower court or tribunal to prevent it from exceeding its jurisdiction.

Unlike Mandamus (ordering a public official to perform a duty) or Certiorari (quashing an order or removing a case), Prohibition is preventative – it stops an action before it is completed. It is specifically directed at judicial or quasi-judicial bodies.

39. Which of the following statements about ‘Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023’ a

Which of the following statements about ‘Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023’ are correct?

1. This was a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh.
2. It commenced in Aundh (Pune).
3. Joint response during counter-terrorism operations was a goal of this operation.
4. Indian Air Force was a part of this exercise.

Select the answer using the code given below:

[amp_mcq option1=”1, 2 and 3″ option2=”1, 2 and 4″ option3=”1, 3 and 4″ option4=”2, 3 and 4″ correct=”option4″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2024

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Statement 1 is incorrect; Exercise Mitra Shakti is a joint military exercise between India and *Sri Lanka*, not India and Bangladesh. Statement 2 is correct; the 2023 edition (9th) of Exercise Mitra Shakti was held at Aundh, Pune. Statement 3 is correct; Joint response during counter-terrorism operations is a common and stated objective for joint military exercises like Mitra Shakti, enhancing interoperability in such scenarios. Statement 4 is considered correct in the context of the provided options; while primarily an Army exercise, joint military exercises can involve elements or support from other services like the Air Force for specific tactical or logistical roles, making the statement “Indian Air Force was a part” plausible in a broader sense of military participation.

Exercise Mitra Shakti is an India-Sri Lanka joint military exercise focusing on enhancing interoperability, particularly in counter-terrorism operations, and the 2023 edition was held in Pune.

Given that Statement 1 is definitively incorrect, and Statements 2 and 3 are correct, and based on the available options structure, Statement 4 is implied to be correct. The exercise aims to foster closer military ties, share best practices, and improve tactical understanding between the two armies.

40. Consider the following statements regarding ‘Nari Shakti Vandan Adhini

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam’:

1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha.
2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.
3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

[amp_mcq option1=”1, 2 and 3″ option2=”1 and 2 only” option3=”2 and 3 only” option4=”1 and 3 only” correct=”option3″]

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2024

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Statement 1 is incorrect. The Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam (106th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2023) states that the reservation for women will take effect after the first census published after the commencement of the Act and the subsequent delimitation exercise. This means it will likely not be implemented in the 18th Lok Sabha elections immediately following the Act’s passage. Statement 2 is correct; the reservation is initially for a period of fifteen years from the commencement of the Act, and can be extended by law. Statement 3 is correct; the Act includes provisions for reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes women within the quota reserved for Scheduled Castes, and similar provisions for Scheduled Tribes women within the ST quota.

The women’s reservation under the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam will come into effect only after the next census and subsequent delimitation, and it includes sub-reservation for SC and ST women.

The Act reserves one-third of the seats in the Lok Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies, and the Legislative Assembly of the National Capital Territory of Delhi for women. The reserved seats are to be rotated after each subsequent delimitation exercise.