UPSC IAS Archives

21. Consider the following statements : Statement-I : The Indian Flying F

Consider the following statements :

Statement-I :
The Indian Flying Fox is placed under the “vermin” category in the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.

Statement-II :
The Indian Flying Fox feeds on the blood of other animals.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements ?

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Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I

Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect

Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2024

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Statement-I is correct. The Indian Flying Fox (*Pteropus giganteus*) is one of the species that can be declared ‘vermin’ by state governments under Section 62 of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972. This is typically done in specific areas where they are considered a threat to agriculture or public health, allowing them to be hunted.
Statement-II is incorrect. The Indian Flying Fox is a frugivorous (fruit-eating) bat. It feeds primarily on fruits, nectar, and pollen. Vampire bats, which are native to the Americas, are the species that feed on blood, but the Indian Flying Fox is not a vampire bat.
Therefore, Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

Listing an animal as ‘vermin’ under the Wild Life (Protection) Act removes its protection status within specified areas. The diet of the Indian Flying Fox is mainly fruits and nectar, essential for plant pollination and seed dispersal.

The practice of declaring certain animals as vermin is controversial, as it can impact populations and ecosystems. The Indian Flying Fox plays an ecological role as a pollinator and seed disperser.

22. Consider the following plants : 1. Groundnut 2. Horse-gram 3. Soyb

Consider the following plants :

1. Groundnut
2. Horse-gram
3. Soybean

How many of the above belong to the pea family ?

Only one

Only two

All three

None

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2024

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All three plants listed – Groundnut (*Arachis hypogaea*), Horse-gram (*Macrotyloma uniflorum*), and Soybean (*Glycine max*) – belong to the pea family, also known as Fabaceae or Leguminosae. Plants in this family are commonly referred to as legumes and are known for their characteristic pods and ability to fix atmospheric nitrogen through symbiotic relationships with bacteria in root nodules.

The Fabaceae family is one of the largest plant families and includes many economically important crops such as beans, peas, lentils, chickpeas, soybeans, peanuts, and clover.

Legumes are a valuable source of protein and fiber in human diets and play a significant role in agriculture due to nitrogen fixation, which improves soil fertility.

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23. Consider the following : 1. Carabid beetles 2. Centipedes 3. Flies

Consider the following :

1. Carabid beetles
2. Centipedes
3. Flies
4. Termites
5. Wasps

Parasitoid species are found in how many of the above kind of organisms ?

Only two

Only three

Only four

All five

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Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2024

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Parasitoid species are found among flies (Order Diptera) and wasps (Order Hymenoptera). Many families within these orders contain species that are parasitoids, with their larvae developing inside or on a host organism, eventually leading to the host’s death. Carabid beetles and Centipedes are typically predatory, while Termites are social insects primarily feeding on wood or other plant material. Therefore, parasitoid species are found in only two of the listed kinds of organisms: Flies and Wasps.

A parasitoid is an organism that lives in close association with a host, where the parasitoid obtains nutrients from the host, eventually resulting in the death of the host. This is distinct from a parasite, which typically does not kill its host.

Examples of parasitoid flies include Tachinid flies, which parasitize other insects. Many families of wasps, such as Ichneumonidae and Braconidae, are well-known for their parasitoid lifestyles, attacking caterpillars, beetles, aphids, and other insects.

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24. With reference to perfluoroalkyl and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS)

With reference to perfluoroalkyl and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) that are used in making many consumer products, consider the following statements:

1. PFAS are found to be widespread in drinking water, food and food packaging materials.
2. PFAS are not easily degraded in the environment.
3. Persistent exposure to PFAS can lead to bioaccumulation in animal bodies.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

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1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2024

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All three statements regarding perfluoroalkyl and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) are correct. PFAS are synthetic chemicals used in a wide range of products, leading to their presence in various environmental media, including drinking water, food, and food packaging. They are known for their strong carbon-fluorine bonds, which make them extremely persistent and resistant to degradation in the environment and biological systems, hence the term “forever chemicals”. Due to their persistence, they can accumulate in the tissues of living organisms, including animals and humans, through repeated exposure, a process known as bioaccumulation.

PFAS are persistent, bioaccumulative, and toxic substances (PBTs). Their widespread use and environmental persistence are major concerns for human health and the environment.

Exposure to PFAS has been linked to various adverse health effects, including immune system effects, hormonal disruption, increased cholesterol levels, and potential links to certain cancers. Regulations and efforts to mitigate PFAS contamination are ongoing globally.

25. One of the following regions has the world’s largest tropical peatland

One of the following regions has the world’s largest tropical peatland, which holds about three years worth of global carbon emissions from fossil fuels; and the possible destruction of which can exert detrimental effect on the global climate. Which one of the following denotes that region?

Amazon Basin.

Congo Basin

Kikori Basin

Rio de la Plata Basin

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Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2024

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The description points to the location of the world’s largest tropical peatland complex. Recent scientific studies, particularly research published around 2017, identified the vast peatlands located in the central Congo Basin as the world’s largest contiguous tropical peat complex. These peatlands store an enormous amount of carbon, estimated to be equivalent to roughly three years of global fossil fuel emissions. Their potential destruction due to climate change, drainage, or land-use change poses a significant risk of releasing this stored carbon, with detrimental effects on the global climate.

The Congo Basin contains the world’s largest tropical peatland, which is a massive carbon sink.

Peatlands are wetlands characterized by the accumulation of partially decayed organic matter (peat). They are important ecosystems and carbon sinks. Tropical peatlands, while less extensive than boreal peatlands, store significant amounts of carbon and are particularly vulnerable to degradation. The Congo Basin peatlands are a critical component of the global carbon cycle.

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26. On June 21 every year, which of the following latitude(s) experience(s

On June 21 every year, which of the following latitude(s) experience(s) a sunlight of more than 12 hours ?

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Equator
Tropic of Cancer
Tropic of Capricorn
Arctic Circle

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 only

2 only

3 and 4

2 and 4

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2024

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June 21st marks the Summer Solstice in the Northern Hemisphere. On this day, the Earth’s Northern Hemisphere is maximally tilted towards the sun.
– Equator (0° latitude): Experiences roughly 12 hours of daylight and 12 hours of night throughout the year, including on June 21st. Sunlight duration is approximately 12 hours, not more than 12 hours.
– Tropic of Cancer (approx 23.5° N): On June 21st, the sun is directly overhead at noon at the Tropic of Cancer. All locations in the Northern Hemisphere north of the equator experience more than 12 hours of daylight on this day. The closer to the North Pole, the longer the daylight. So, the Tropic of Cancer experiences more than 12 hours.
– Tropic of Capricorn (approx 23.5° S): June 21st is the Winter Solstice in the Southern Hemisphere. Locations south of the equator experience less than 12 hours of daylight on this day (except south of the Antarctic Circle, which has 24 hours of darkness). So, the Tropic of Capricorn experiences less than 12 hours.
– Arctic Circle (approx 66.5° N): On June 21st, all locations north of the Arctic Circle experience 24 hours of daylight (Midnight Sun). 24 hours is definitely more than 12 hours.
Therefore, the Tropic of Cancer and the Arctic Circle experience sunlight of more than 12 hours on June 21st.

On the Northern Hemisphere Summer Solstice (June 21st), all latitudes in the Northern Hemisphere north of the equator experience more than 12 hours of daylight; the duration increases with latitude.

The phenomenon of polar day (24 hours of sunlight) occurs north of the Arctic Circle on June 21st. The duration of daylight increases from 12 hours at the equator to 24 hours at or north of the Arctic Circle on this day.

27. With reference to “Coriolis force”, which of the following statements

With reference to “Coriolis force”, which of the following statements is/are correct?

It increases with increase in wind velocity.
It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator.

Select the answer using the code given below :

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1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2024

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The Coriolis force is an apparent force caused by the Earth’s rotation that deflects moving objects (like wind and ocean currents) to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere. The magnitude of the Coriolis force (F_c) is given by F_c = 2 * m * v * ω * sin(φ), where m is the mass of the object, v is its velocity, ω is the angular velocity of the Earth’s rotation, and φ is the latitude.
Statement 1: The formula shows that F_c is directly proportional to the velocity (v) of the moving object. Thus, it increases with an increase in wind velocity. This statement is correct.
Statement 2: The term sin(φ) in the formula varies with latitude. At the equator (φ = 0°), sin(0°) = 0, so the Coriolis force is zero. At the poles (φ = 90° or -90°), sin(90°) = 1 or sin(-90°) = -1, giving the maximum magnitude (directional deflection is opposite). Thus, the Coriolis force is maximum at the poles and absent at the equator. This statement is correct.
Both statements are correct.

The Coriolis force is proportional to velocity and varies with latitude, being zero at the equator and maximum at the poles.

The Coriolis force acts perpendicular to the direction of motion. It is responsible for the deflection of winds and ocean currents, influencing large-scale atmospheric and oceanic circulation patterns, including the formation of cyclones (though it does not initiate them).

28. Consider the following description: Annual and daily range of temper

Consider the following description:

Annual and daily range of temperatures is low.
Precipitation occurs throughout the year.
Precipitation varies between 50 cm – 250 cm.

What is this type of climate?

Equatorial climate

China type climate

Humid subtropical climate

Marine West coast climate

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2024

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Let’s analyze the characteristics:
– Annual and daily range of temperatures is low: This implies consistent temperatures throughout the year and little variation between day and night. This is characteristic of regions where insolation is consistent and there is high humidity and cloud cover to prevent rapid heat gain/loss, such as the equatorial region.
– Precipitation occurs throughout the year: This indicates a lack of distinct dry seasons.
– Precipitation varies between 50 cm – 250 cm: While 50 cm is low for typical rainforests, the *range* covers typical equatorial rainfall (often >150-200 cm).

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Let’s evaluate the options:
A) Equatorial climate: Located around the equator, characterized by high temperatures year-round, low annual temperature range, low daily temperature range (due to humidity/cloud cover), and high, often daily, rainfall throughout the year. Rainfall amounts are typically high (150-250+ cm/year). This fits the description very well, especially the low temperature ranges and year-round precipitation.
B) China type climate (Humid Subtropical): Has hot, humid summers and mild winters. Experiences significant seasonal temperature variations (higher annual range) and rainfall is often concentrated in the summer, although it can be significant year-round.
C) Humid subtropical climate: Same as China type. Does not fit “low annual range of temperatures”.
D) Marine West coast climate: Characterized by mild temperatures year-round (low annual range) and significant precipitation. However, precipitation is often concentrated in winter, and while it can occur year-round, the “throughout the year” and low *daily* range points strongly towards the equatorial climate.

Considering all points, the Equatorial climate is the best fit.

Low annual and daily temperature range coupled with year-round precipitation are defining characteristics of the Equatorial climate.

Equatorial climates are found within approximately 5-10 degrees latitude of the equator. The consistent high temperatures cause significant evaporation, leading to high humidity and convectional rainfall almost daily. The constant cloud cover and high humidity prevent large temperature swings between day and night.

29. With reference to “water vapour”, which of the following statements is

With reference to “water vapour”, which of the following statements is/are correct?

It is a gas, the amount of which decreases with altitude.
Its percentage is maximum at the poles.

Select the answer using the code given below :

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2024

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Statement 1: Water vapour is the gaseous state of water and is a greenhouse gas. Its concentration in the atmosphere varies greatly but is generally highest near the Earth’s surface due to evaporation from water bodies and plants. As altitude increases, temperature and pressure decrease, limiting the amount of water vapour the air can hold (dew point decreases). Therefore, the amount of water vapour typically decreases significantly with altitude. This statement is correct.
Statement 2: The amount of water vapour the air can hold is strongly dependent on temperature. Warmer air can hold much more water vapour than cold air. The poles are very cold regions. Consequently, the absolute amount and percentage of water vapour in the atmosphere are generally lowest at the poles and highest in warm, humid tropical and equatorial regions. This statement is incorrect.

Water vapour concentration is inversely related to altitude and directly related to temperature; it is highest near the surface and in warm regions.

Although its percentage is low at the poles, water vapour still plays a role in the polar climate, and changes in Arctic water vapour are being studied in the context of Arctic amplification (warming). Globally, water vapour is the most abundant greenhouse gas.

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30. Consider the following airports: Donyi Polo Airport Kushinagar Inte

Consider the following airports:

Donyi Polo Airport
Kushinagar International Airport
Vijayawada International Airport

In the recent past, which of the above have been constructed as Greenfield projects?

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2024

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A greenfield project is one that is built from scratch on undeveloped land, as opposed to a brownfield project which involves repurposing or upgrading existing facilities.
1. Donyi Polo Airport (Itanagar, Arunachal Pradesh): This is a completely new airport built on a greenfield site near Itanagar. It was inaugurated in November 2022.
2. Kushinagar International Airport (Uttar Pradesh): This airport was also developed on a greenfield site. It was inaugurated in October 2021.
3. Vijayawada International Airport (Andhra Pradesh): The airport at Gannavaram near Vijayawada was originally a military airfield and was later developed for civilian use. While it has undergone significant upgrades and expansion, including a new terminal and runway extensions, it was not built completely from scratch on a new site like Donyi Polo or Kushinagar. It is more accurately described as an upgrade/expansion of an existing airport facility.
Therefore, in the recent past, Donyi Polo Airport and Kushinagar International Airport have been constructed as greenfield projects.

Greenfield projects involve building infrastructure entirely from the ground up on previously undeveloped land.

Other notable recent greenfield airport projects in India include Kannur International Airport (Kerala) and Pakyong Airport (Sikkim), besides the upcoming Navi Mumbai International Airport. These contrast with upgrades or expansions of existing airports like those in Delhi, Mumbai, or Vijayawada, which are often considered brownfield developments or a mix depending on the scope.

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