21. Consider the following countries : Azerbaijan Kyrgyzstan Tajiki

Consider the following countries :

  1. Azerbaijan
  2. Kyrgyzstan
  3. Tajikistan
  4. Turkmenistan
  5. Uzbekistan

Which of the above have borders with Afghanistan ?

1, 2 and 5 only
1, 2, 3 and 4 only
3, 4 and 5 only
1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2022
Based on the geographical locations, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, and Uzbekistan share borders with Afghanistan.
Afghanistan is landlocked and borders six countries: Pakistan to the south and east, Iran to the west, Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan, and Tajikistan to the north, and China to the northeast.
Azerbaijan borders Iran, Russia, Georgia, Armenia, and the Caspian Sea. Kyrgyzstan borders China, Kazakhstan, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan. Neither Azerbaijan nor Kyrgyzstan share a border with Afghanistan.

22. The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which

The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions ?

Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores
Region along North African shores stretching from Egypt to Morocco
Region along Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa
The entire coastal areas of Mediterranean Sea
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2022
The term “Levant” refers to a large area in the Eastern Mediterranean region of Western Asia. It includes countries that border the eastern part of the Mediterranean Sea.
The Levant is a historical geographical term referring to the area corresponding approximately to modern-day Syria, Lebanon, Jordan, Palestine, Israel, and often includes parts of Turkey and Egypt.
The term comes from the French word ‘levant’, meaning ‘rising’, referring to the direction of the rising sun (the East) from the perspective of someone in the West (Europe).

23. Consider the following pairs : Peak Mountains 1. Na

Consider the following pairs :

Peak Mountains
1. Namcha Barwa Garhwal Himalaya
2. Nanda Devi Kumaon Himalaya
3. Nokrek Sikkim Himalaya

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?

1 and 2
2 only
1 and 3
3 only
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2022
Only pair 2 is correctly matched.
– Pair 1: Namcha Barwa is located in the easternmost Himalayas, near the bend of the Brahmaputra river, in Arunachal Pradesh and Tibet. It is not in the Garhwal Himalaya, which is in Uttarakhand. Incorrect.
– Pair 2: Nanda Devi is located in Uttarakhand and is part of the Kumaon Himalaya. It is the second-highest peak in India (after Kangchenjunga on the border with Nepal) and the highest peak located entirely within India. Correct.
– Pair 3: Nokrek Peak is the highest point of the Garo Hills in Meghalaya, in Northeast India. It is not part of the Sikkim Himalaya, which is located much further west, encompassing parts of Nepal, Bhutan, and Sikkim. Incorrect.
The Himalayas are broadly divided into several sections, including the Punjab, Kumaon, Nepal, Sikkim, and Assam/Arunachal Himalayas, based on regional boundaries or river valleys. Major peaks are located in these different sections. The Garhwal Himalaya is often considered part of the Kumaon Himalaya region.

24. Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the follow

Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers ?

Cauvery
Manjira
Pennar
Tungabhadra
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2022
The Gandikota canyon of South India was created by the Pennar river.
– Gandikota is a village situated on the right bank of the Penna river (also known as Pennar) in the YSR Kadapa district of Andhra Pradesh.
– The famous canyon at Gandikota is formed where the Penna river cuts through the relatively flat landscape of the Eastern Ghats, creating a deep gorge resembling the Grand Canyon in the USA.
The Pennar River is one of the major rivers of South India, originating in the Nandi Hills in Karnataka and flowing through Andhra Pradesh before emptying into the Bay of Bengal. The canyon at Gandikota is a significant geological feature and a popular tourist attraction.

25. Which one of the following lakes of West Africa has become dry and tur

Which one of the following lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert ?

Lake Victoria
Lake Faguibine
Lake Oguta
Lake Volta
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2022
Lake Faguibine in Mali, West Africa, has significantly shrunk and in periods of drought, has effectively dried up and turned into a desert area.
– Lake Faguibine is located north of Timbuktu in Mali. Historically, it was a large lake fed by the Niger River during its annual flood.
– In recent decades, a combination of reduced rainfall in the Niger Basin (drought) and possibly increased upstream water abstraction has led to a dramatic decline in the lake’s water levels.
– The area that was formerly a large lake has largely become desertified, impacting local communities that relied on the lake for fishing and agriculture.
Lake Victoria is in East Africa, Lake Oguta is in Nigeria, and Lake Volta is a man-made lake in Ghana; none of these have dried up and turned into a desert. Lake Chad, located south of the Sahara on the border of Chad, Cameroon, Niger, and Nigeria, is another major African lake that has shrunk dramatically over the past few decades, but Lake Faguibine is specifically known for turning into a desert area due to drying.

26. “System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which alternate we

“System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in :

  • Reduced seed requirement
  • Reduced methane production
  • Reduced electricity consumption

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2022
The System of Rice Intensification (SRI), particularly the practice of alternate wetting and drying (AWD), results in reduced seed requirement, reduced methane production, and reduced electricity consumption.
– Statement 1 (Reduced seed requirement): SRI typically involves transplanting single, young seedlings at wider spacing compared to traditional methods, significantly lowering the amount of seed needed per unit area. Correct.
– Statement 2 (Reduced methane production): Methane is produced in rice paddies under continuous flooding due to anaerobic decomposition. Alternate wetting and drying cycles introduce oxygen into the soil, reducing anaerobic conditions and thus significantly lowering methane emissions. Correct.
– Statement 3 (Reduced electricity consumption): Less water is used in SRI due to AWD compared to continuous flooding. If irrigation relies on electric pumps, reduced water usage translates directly to reduced electricity consumption for pumping. Correct.
SRI is a set of practices aimed at increasing rice yields while using fewer inputs like water, seed, and fertilizers, and reducing greenhouse gas emissions. AWD is a key component that achieves water savings and methane reduction. SRI also typically leads to healthier soil and stronger plants.

27. Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogen

Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide ?

Cotton
Rice
Sugarcane
Wheat
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2022
Among the given options, rice cultivation is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide.
– Rice paddies, when flooded, create anaerobic conditions in the soil, which are ideal for methanogenic bacteria to produce methane (CH4). Rice cultivation is a significant global source of anthropogenic methane emissions.
– Nitrous oxide (N2O) emissions from agriculture primarily come from the application of nitrogen fertilizers and the management of manure, which stimulates nitrifying and denitrifying bacteria in the soil. Rice cultivation often involves significant nitrogen fertilization.
– While other crops like cotton, sugarcane, and wheat contribute to N2O emissions (due to fertilization), they are not major sources of methane from the cultivation process itself, unlike flooded rice paddies.
Globally, agriculture is a major contributor to both methane and nitrous oxide emissions. Enteric fermentation in livestock is another dominant source of methane, while synthetic fertilizers are a leading source of N2O. Rice cultivation uniquely combines significant emissions of both gases due to the specific conditions of paddy fields and fertilization practices.

28. If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the f

If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth?

  • GPS and navigation systems could fail.
  • Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions.
  • Power grids could be damaged.
  • Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth.
  • Forest fires could take place over much of the planet.
  • Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed.
  • Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1, 2, 4 and 5 only
2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only
1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2022
Possible effects of a major solar storm reaching the Earth include disruption of GPS, damage to power grids, intense auroras, disturbance of satellite orbits, and interruption of shortwave radio communication, particularly in polar regions. Tsunamis and widespread forest fires are not direct effects.
– Statement 1 (GPS): Correct. Solar storms can disrupt the ionosphere, through which GPS signals pass, causing navigation errors or outages.
– Statement 2 (Tsunamis): Incorrect. Solar storms affect the space environment around Earth and the upper atmosphere, not geological processes that cause tsunamis.
– Statement 3 (Power grids): Correct. Geomagnetic storms can induce currents in long conductors like power lines, potentially damaging transformers and causing blackouts.
– Statement 4 (Auroras): Correct. Increased particle influx from solar storms enhances auroral displays, making them more intense and visible at lower latitudes than usual.
– Statement 5 (Forest fires): Incorrect. There is no direct link between solar storms and the ignition or spread of forest fires.
– Statement 6 (Satellite orbits): Correct. Increased heating of the upper atmosphere by particle influx causes it to expand, increasing drag on satellites in Low Earth Orbit (LEO) and affecting their trajectories.
– Statement 7 (Shortwave radio): Correct. Shortwave radio relies on reflection from the ionosphere. Solar storms can cause ionospheric disturbances (radio blackouts), especially affecting high-latitude regions where aircraft often use shortwave communication.
Major solar storms, often associated with Coronal Mass Ejections (CMEs) and solar flares, are powerful bursts of radiation and charged particles from the Sun. Their interaction with Earth’s magnetic field and atmosphere can have significant impacts on technology infrastructure, a field known as ‘space weather’.

29. In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic,

In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements:

  • The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform.
  • Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform.
  • COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2022
Statements 2 and 3 are correct. Statement 1 is incorrect.
– Statement 1 is incorrect: Covishield, manufactured by the Serum Institute of India, is the Oxford-AstraZeneca vaccine. It uses a viral vector platform (specifically, a modified chimpanzee adenovirus) to deliver the genetic material for the SARS-CoV-2 spike protein. It is not an mRNA vaccine.
– Statement 2 is correct: Sputnik V, developed by the Gamaleya Research Institute in Russia, is an adenoviral vector vaccine. It uses two different human adenoviruses (Ad26 and Ad5) for the two doses.
– Statement 3 is correct: COVAXIN, developed by Bharat Biotech in India, is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine. It uses the whole SARS-CoV-2 virus, which has been chemically inactivated so it cannot replicate or cause disease, but can still trigger an immune response.
COVID-19 vaccines utilize various platforms, including mRNA (e.g., Pfizer-BioNTech, Moderna), viral vector (e.g., AstraZeneca/Covishield, Sputnik V, Johnson & Johnson), inactivated virus (e.g., COVAXIN, Sinovac, Sinopharm), and protein subunit. Understanding the platform is key to knowing how the vaccine works.

30. Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics : Probiot

Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics :

  • Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast.
  • The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut.
  • Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1 only
2 only
1 and 3
2 and 3
This question was previously asked in
UPSC IAS – 2022
Statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect.
– Statement 1 is correct: Probiotics are typically defined as live microorganisms which, when administered in adequate amounts, confer a health benefit on the host. While many probiotics contain bacteria (e.g., Lactobacillus, Bifidobacterium), some also include yeasts (e.g., Saccharomyces boulardii). Thus, probiotics can be made of bacteria, yeast, or a combination of both.
– Statement 2 is incorrect: The beneficial organisms used in probiotics, such as various species of Lactobacillus and Bifidobacterium, are natural inhabitants of the human gut microbiome. Probiotics are consumed to supplement or enhance these populations.
– Statement 3 is correct: Some probiotic strains, particularly certain bacteria like Lactobacillus species, produce the enzyme beta-galactosidase (lactase), which helps break down lactose (milk sugar). This can aid in the digestion of milk sugars, especially for individuals with lactose intolerance.
The effectiveness of probiotics is strain-specific and depends on the specific health condition being targeted. Probiotic research is ongoing, exploring benefits for various conditions including digestive health, immune function, and mental well-being.