UPSC IAS Archives

21. The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern C

The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members ?

Governor of the Constituent State
Chief Minister of the Constituent State
Three Members to be nominated by the President of India
The Home Minister of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1, 2 and 3 only

1, 3 and 4 only

2 and 4 only

1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

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UPSC IAS – 2024

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The correct answer is D, including all four listed members.

The North Eastern Council (NEC) Act, 1971, was amended in 2002. The amended Act stipulates the composition of the Council. The members include the Governors of the constituent states, the Chief Ministers of the constituent states, three members nominated by the President of India, and the Union Home Minister who serves as the ex-officio Chairman of the Council. All four categories listed are therefore part of the Council’s composition.

The NEC is a regional planning body for the eight states of Northeast India (Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, and Tripura). It is mandated to function as a regional planning body for the economic and social development of the region.

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22. Which of the following is/are correctly matched in terms of equivalent

Which of the following is/are correctly matched in terms of equivalent rank in the three services of Indian Defence forces ?

	Army	Airforce	Navy
1.	Brigadier	Air Commodore	Commander
2.	Major General	Air Vice Marshal	Vice Admiral
3.	Major	Squadron Leader	Lieutenant Commander
4.	Lieutenant Colonel	Group Captain	Captain

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1 and 4

1 and 3

2, 3 and 4

3 only

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2024

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The correct answer is D, indicating that only row 3 is correctly matched.

Let’s examine each row:
1. Brigadier (Army) is equivalent to Air Commodore (Air Force) and Commodore (Navy). The Navy rank is incorrect (Commander).
2. Major General (Army) is equivalent to Air Vice Marshal (Air Force) and Rear Admiral (Navy). The Navy rank is incorrect (Vice Admiral).
3. Major (Army) is equivalent to Squadron Leader (Air Force) and Lieutenant Commander (Navy). This row is correctly matched.
4. Lieutenant Colonel (Army) is equivalent to Wing Commander (Air Force) and Commander (Navy). The Air Force rank (Group Captain) and Navy rank (Captain) given are incorrect for Lieutenant Colonel; Group Captain and Captain are equivalent to Colonel (Army).

Understanding the equivalent ranks across the three branches of the Indian Defence Forces is important for general knowledge and defence studies. The rank structure reflects hierarchy and command authority within each service.

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23. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bi

Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament ?

1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills.
2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.
4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha.

Select the answer using the code given below :

1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

1, 3 and 4

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2024

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The correct answer is C, including statements 1, 2, and 3.

Statement 1 is correct as Article 109 of the Indian Constitution lays down the special procedure for Money Bills. Statement 2 is correct because a Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha (House of the People), as per Article 109(1). Statement 3 is correct as the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) has limited powers regarding a Money Bill; it cannot reject it but can only suggest amendments and must return it to the Lok Sabha within 14 days (Article 109(2)). Statement 4 is incorrect because the Lok Sabha is not bound to accept the recommendations made by the Rajya Sabha regarding a Money Bill; it may accept or reject any or all of them (Article 109(3)).

A Money Bill is defined in Article 110 of the Constitution. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha certifies whether a Bill is a Money Bill, and this decision is final. The Lok Sabha plays the dominant role in the legislative process for Money Bills.

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25. As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may am

As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of :

1. Addition
2. Variation
3. Repeal

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

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1 and 2 only

2 and 3 only

1 and 3 only

1, 2 and 3

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2024

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The correct option is D.

Article 368 of the Constitution of India outlines the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution. The process of amendment essentially involves making changes to the existing text of the Constitution. This can be done by adding new provisions (Addition), changing existing provisions (Variation), or removing existing provisions (Repeal). The term ‘amend’ in a legal context encompasses all these actions.

Article 368 describes different procedures for amendment, ranging from simple majority (for certain provisions, though this is often considered outside the scope of Article 368’s formal procedure) to special majority in Parliament (two-thirds of members present and voting and majority of total membership) and special majority along with ratification by half of the state legislatures, depending on the nature of the provision being amended.

26. Consider the following properties included in the World Heritage List

Consider the following properties included in the World Heritage List released by UNESCO :

1. Shantiniketan
2. Rani-ki-Vav
3. Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas
4. Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya

How many of the above properties were included in 2023 ?

Only one

Only two

Only three

All four

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2024

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The correct option is B, as only two properties from the list were included in 2023.

In 2023, India successfully inscribed two properties on the UNESCO World Heritage List: Shantiniketan and the Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas (including temples at Belur, Halebid, and Somanathapura). Rani-ki-Vav in Patan, Gujarat, was inscribed in 2014. The Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya, Bihar, was inscribed in 2002.

As of 2023, India has a total of 42 UNESCO World Heritage sites, consisting of 34 cultural sites, 7 natural sites, and 1 mixed site. Shantiniketan became the 41st site and the Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas became the 42nd site.

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27. Sanghabhuti, an Indian Buddhist monk, who travelled to China at the en

Sanghabhuti, an Indian Buddhist monk, who travelled to China at the end of the fourth century AD, was the author of a commentary on :

Prajnaparamita Sutra

Visuddhimagga

Sarvastivada Vinaya

Lalitavistara

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2024

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The correct option is C.

Sanghabhuti (or Saṅghabhūti) was an Indian Buddhist monk from Kashmir who traveled to China and arrived in Chang’an in 383 AD. He was known for his expertise in Vinaya texts. He collaborated with Chinese monks and translated several Vinaya texts into Chinese, including a commentary on the Sarvastivada Vinaya, specifically the *Vinaya Piṭaka of the Mūlasarvāstivādins*. This commentary is one of the key works attributed to him in Chinese Buddhist historical records.

Prajnaparamita Sutras are a genre of Mahayana Buddhist texts on perfection of wisdom. Visuddhimagga is a Theravada commentary by Buddhaghosa. Lalitavistara is a Mahayana text detailing the life of the Buddha. Sanghabhuti’s main work in China was related to the Vinaya tradition, specifically of the Sarvastivada school.

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28. Which one of the following is a work attributed to playwright Bhasa ?

Which one of the following is a work attributed to playwright Bhasa ?

Kavyalankara

Natyashastra

Madhyama-vyayoga

Mahabhashya

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2024

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The correct option is C.

Bhasa was a celebrated classical Sanskrit playwright who is believed to have lived sometime before Kalidasa. Among the options, ‘Madhyama-vyayoga’ is a well-known one-act play attributed to Bhasa. His works were lost for centuries and rediscovered in 1912 by T. Ganapati Sastri in Kerala. ‘Swapnavasavadattam’ is another famous play attributed to him.

Kavyalankara is a work on poetics. Natyashastra is the foundational treatise on Indian performing arts. Mahabhashya is a famous commentary on Panini’s grammar by Patanjali. These are works by different authors, not Bhasa.

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29. With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the foll

With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements :

It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States.
Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1 only

2 only

Both 1 and 2

Neither 1 nor 2

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2024

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The correct option is A, as only statement 1 is correct.

Statement 1 is correct. The Government of India Act, 1935, indeed proposed the establishment of an All India Federation comprising British Indian Provinces and the Princely States. However, this federal part of the Act was never fully implemented as the required number of Princely States did not accede to the federation. Statement 2 is incorrect. Under the Government of India Act, 1935, subjects like Defence and External Affairs (Foreign Affairs) were classified as “reserved subjects” and were kept under the direct control of the Governor-General, who was responsible to the British Crown, not the federal legislature.

The 1935 Act introduced provincial autonomy and dyarchy at the centre (though dyarchy was abolished at the provincial level). It also established the Federal Court and the Reserve Bank of India. While the federation part did not materialize, the provincial autonomy provisions and other parts of the Act had a significant impact and served as a basis for the Indian Constitution.

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30. Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before D

Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over ?

C. Rajagopalachari

Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

T.T. Krishnamachari

Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha

Answer is Right!

Answer is Wrong!

This question was previously asked in

UPSC IAS – 2024

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The correct option is D.

The first meeting of the Constituent Assembly of India was held on December 9, 1946. Following the French practice, the oldest member, Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha, was elected as the interim or provisional President of the Assembly. Later, on December 11, 1946, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the permanent President.

C. Rajagopalachari was a prominent leader and the last Governor-General of India. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution. T.T. Krishnamachari was a member of the Drafting Committee.

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